PNRD 28 Aug 2020

Total 100 questions

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41. Which is not a key feature of MGNREGA?

Answer: Self-employment to be provided on completion of 100 days by job-card holders
A
100 days of employment for each registered rural household
B
Work to be executed using manual labour
C
Contractors prohibited from executing work
D
Self-employment to be provided on completion of 100 days by job-card holders
Detailed Explanation
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MGNREGA guarantees up to 100 days of wage employment to eligible rural households; it does not promise self-employment after 100 days.

42. The minimum size of the house under PMAY-G is _____.

Answer: 25 sq. m
A
20 sq. m
B
25 sq. m
C
30 sq. m
D
15 sq. m
Detailed Explanation
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PMAY-G provides for a minimum house size of 25 square metres, including a hygienic cooking area.

43. Which of the following is not required to make an SHG eligible for financial assistance?

Answer: Regular cultural events
A
Regular meetings
B
Regular saving
C
Good record keeping
D
Regular cultural events
Detailed Explanation
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SHG bank-linkage readiness commonly depends on regular meetings, savings, internal lending and proper records—not on conducting cultural events.

44. The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act came into force on _____.

Answer: 2 February 2006
A
7 September 2005
B
2 February 2006
C
23 August 2005
D
None of the above
Detailed Explanation
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MGNREGA came into force on 2 February 2006, initially in 200 districts; it was later extended nationwide.

45. PRA Techniques stand for _____.

Answer: Participatory Rural Appraisal
A
Public Resource Assessment
B
Proper Resource Analysis
C
Participatory Rural Appraisal
D
Poverty Reduction Approach
Detailed Explanation
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Participatory Rural Appraisal (PRA) uses participatory methods to help communities assess needs, resources and development priorities.

46. Who is the ultimate authority for selection of schemes under “Amar Gaon Amar Achoni”?

Answer: Rural people
A
Block Development Officer
B
Chairperson of the Gaon Panchayat
C
Rural people
D
Both officials and elected representatives of Panchayats
Detailed Explanation
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The scheme’s planning approach emphasizes people’s participation; the source marks rural people as the ultimate authority in scheme selection.

47. The tenure of every Panchayat shall be five years from the date of _____.

Answer: Its first meeting
A
Its first meeting
B
Issue of notification for conduct of elections
C
Declaration of election results
D
Taking oath of office by elected members
Detailed Explanation
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Article 243E provides a five-year duration for every Panchayat from the date appointed for its first meeting, unless sooner dissolved.

48. Who was the founder of the holy city of Amritsar?

Answer: Guru Ram Das
A
Guru Nanak
B
Guru Ram Das
C
Ranjit Singh
D
Sri Govind Singh
Detailed Explanation
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Guru Ram Das, the fourth Sikh Guru, founded Ramdaspur, later known as Amritsar, in the 16th century.

49. The coin “Rupia” was first issued by _____.

Answer: Sher Shah Suri
A
Sher Shah Suri
B
Alauddin Khilji
C
Akbar
D
Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq
Detailed Explanation
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Sher Shah Suri standardized the silver rupee, a coinage system that influenced later Indian currency.

50. In which year was the capital of India shifted from Calcutta to Delhi?

Answer: 1911
A
1912
B
1911
C
1910
D
1909
Detailed Explanation
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The capital shift from Calcutta to Delhi was announced at the Delhi Durbar on 12 December 1911; the transfer took effect in 1912.

51. Which musical instrument is called the “Queen of Musical Instruments”?

Answer: Violin
A
Violin
B
Flute
C
Veena
D
Shehnai
Detailed Explanation
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The violin is commonly described as the queen of musical instruments because of its expressive range and prominence in orchestral music.

52. In world production of natural rubber, India ranks _____.

Answer: Second
A
Second
B
Third
C
Fourth
D
Fifth
Detailed Explanation
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India has historically been among the leading natural-rubber producers; rank can vary by year, so the paper’s answer should be treated as tied to its exam-era reference.

53. Which Indian state has the largest area under forests?

Answer: Madhya Pradesh
A
Himachal Pradesh
B
Madhya Pradesh
C
Assam
D
Kerala
Detailed Explanation
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Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest area by absolute area among Indian states in the commonly cited Forest Survey of India assessments; forest cover percentage is a different measure.

54. Teak grows most abundantly in _____.

Answer: Central India
A
Assam and Meghalaya
B
The Himalayas
C
Central India
D
The Western Ghats
Detailed Explanation
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Teak is a tropical deciduous timber species abundant in central India and parts of the peninsular region.

55. Who elects the Speaker of the Lok Sabha?

Answer: Elected by members of the Lok Sabha
A
Appointed by the President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister
B
Elected by members of the two Houses at a joint sitting
C
Appointed by the President
D
Elected by members of the Lok Sabha
Detailed Explanation
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Article 93 provides that the Lok Sabha chooses its Speaker and Deputy Speaker from among its members.

56. A body is brought to the surface of the Moon. What happens to its mass and weight?

Answer: Its weight will change
A
Its mass will change
B
Both mass and weight will change
C
Its weight will change
D
Its mass and weight both will remain same
Detailed Explanation
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Mass is the amount of matter and remains constant; weight depends on gravitational acceleration, which is about one-sixth of Earth’s on the Moon.

57. Which pollutant has caused damage to the Taj Mahal?

Answer: SO₂
A
CO₂
B
Radioactive waste
C
CO
D
SO₂
Detailed Explanation
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Sulphur dioxide and other air pollutants contribute to acid deposition and marble deterioration at the Taj Mahal; the paper’s keyed choice is SO₂.

58. Soda water contains _____.

Answer: Carbonic acid
A
Nitrous acid
B
Carbonic acid
C
Carbon dioxide
D
Sulphuric acid
Detailed Explanation
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Carbon dioxide dissolves in water and forms a small amount of carbonic acid (H₂CO₃), giving soda water its characteristic acidity.

59. In which country did chess originate?

Answer: India
A
Greece
B
England
C
Australia
D
India
Detailed Explanation
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Chess developed from the Indian game chaturanga, which spread to Persia and then further west.

60. SAI stands for _____.

Answer: Sports Authority of India
A
Sportsperson and Athletes of India
B
Sports Authority of India
C
Sports Association of India
D
Sports Agents of India
Detailed Explanation
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Sports Authority of India (SAI) is the national body supporting sports training, athlete development and sports infrastructure under the Government of India.

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PNRD 28 Aug 2020 ▾