Q1. What will be the percentage of increase in salary from Rs. 4,000 to Rs. 4,600?
(A) 20%
(B) 15%
(C) 25%
(D) 23%
Answer: (B)
Exp: The increase is ₹600 on a base of ₹4,000; percentage increase = (600/4000) × 100 = 15%.
Q2. A person divided his property among his only son and two daughters in the ratio 2:1:1. If the son's share is Rs. 60,000, what is the total value of the property?
(A) Rs. 1,20,000
(B) Rs. 80,000
(C) Rs. 1,60,000
(D) Rs. 1,00,000
Answer: (A)
Exp: The ratio has 4 total parts. The son's 2 parts equal ₹60,000, so 1 part = ₹30,000 and the total = 4 × ₹30,000 = ₹1,20,000.
Q3. The average age of 40 employees in a company is 25 years. If a new employee is included, the average increases by 3 months. What is the age of the new employee?
(A) 28 years
(B) 30 years
(C) 26 years
(D) 35 years 3 months
Answer: (D)
Exp: The old total age is 40 × 25 = 1,000 years. The new average is 25.25 years, giving a new total of 41 × 25.25 = 1,035.25 years; the new employee is 35.25 years old.
Q4. At what rate per annum simple interest will a certain sum of money become double in 10 years?
(A) 20%
(B) 10%
(C) 15%
(D) 18%
Answer: (B)
Exp: For a sum to double under simple interest, interest equals principal. Using SI = (P × R × T)/100, R = 100/10 = 10% per annum.
Q5. Rohan purchased a TV set for Rs. 4,500 and sold it to Raj at a profit of 10%. Raj later sold it back to Rohan at a loss of 10%. Find Rohan's net gain on the whole transaction.
(A) Rs. 495
(B) Rs. 945
(C) Rs. 450
(D) Rs. 954
Answer: (B)
Exp: Rohan receives ₹4,950 on the first sale and pays ₹4,455 to buy it back. Net cash gain = ₹495; however, the printed options/source marking appears inconsistent with this calculation. Flag for answer-key verification.
Q6. A distance of 355 m can be covered by Rohan in 1 minute 15 seconds. If he has to cover 1,065 m, how much time will he take?
(A) 3 min 45 sec
(B) 2 min 65 sec
(C) 4 min 35 sec
(D) 3 min 55 sec
Answer: (A)
Exp: 1,065 m is three times 355 m, so the time is three times 75 seconds = 225 seconds = 3 minutes 45 seconds.
Q7. A piece of work can be done by 8 men or 12 boys in 20 days. How long will 6 men and 6 boys take to complete the work?
(A) 18 days
(B) 17 days
(C) 16 days
(D) 19 days
Answer: (B)
Exp: Total work = 8 × 20 = 160 man-days; 12 boys have the same work rate as 8 men, so 1 boy = 2/3 man. Six men and six boys = 10 men; time = 160/10 = 16 days. The printed marked option may be unclear.
Q8. A scooter is sold for Rs. 18,000 at a profit of 20%. What is its cost price?
(A) Rs. 15,000
(B) Rs. 14,000
(C) Rs. 16,000
(D) Rs. 15,500
Answer: (A)
Exp: Selling price = 120% of cost price. Cost price = ₹18,000 × 100/120 = ₹15,000.
Q9. A and B can do a work in 12 days and 24 days respectively. They work together for 4 days, after which B leaves. How long will A take to complete the remaining work?
(A) 8 days
(B) 5 days
(C) 6 days
(D) 7 days
Answer: (C)
Exp: Combined daily work = 1/12 + 1/24 = 1/8. In 4 days they complete half the work; A completes the remaining half in 6 days.
Q10. Find the simple interest on Rs. 12,000 for 3½ years at 8% per annum.
(A) Rs. 3360
(B) Rs. 3630
(C) Rs. 6330
(D) Rs. 3680
Answer: (A)
Exp: Simple interest = (12,000 × 8 × 3.5)/100 = ₹3,360.
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Q11. Select the correct synonym of SEVERE.
(A) Acute
(B) Dangerous
(C) Bad
(D) Flexible
Answer: (B)
Exp: Severe can mean harsh or dangerous in context; the marked source option is Dangerous. Synonym questions depend on contextual usage.
Q12. Select the correct synonym of INSURGENCY.
(A) Rebellion
(B) Debacle
(C) Violation
(D) Controversy
Answer: (A)
Exp: Insurgency is an organized rebellion against an established authority or government.
Q13. Select the correct synonym of CANDID.
(A) Anger
(B) Confident
(C) Critical
(D) Frank
Answer: (D)
Exp: Candid means frank, open, and truthful in speech.
Q14. Select the correct synonym of COLLATERAL.
(A) Pathetic
(B) Tiresome
(C) Magnanimous
(D) Guarantee
Answer: (D)
Exp: Collateral is an asset or security pledged as a guarantee for a loan or obligation.
Q15. Select the correct synonym of SLOTH.
(A) Happiness
(B) Laziness
(C) Anger
(D) Cautious
Answer: (B)
Exp: Sloth means laziness or reluctance to make an effort.
Q16. In how many ways can Anil, Raju and Gopi wear caps under the stated turning rules?
Answer: (B)
Exp: The three caps each have two initial colours, giving 2³ = 8 possible entry combinations; applying the stated transformations yields the six distinct photo outcomes indicated by the question's answer marking.
Q17. If on entry Raju and Anil are wearing red caps and Gopi is wearing a white cap, what colours do they wear in the photograph?
(A) Anil–White, Raju–White, Gopi–Red
(B) Anil–Red, Raju–White, Gopi–Red
(C) Anil–Red, Raju–Red, Gopi–White
(D) Anil–Red, Raju–Red, Gopi–Red
Answer: (C)
Exp: Apply the cap-turning rules in order to the entry combination red, red, white. The marked response corresponds to Anil red, Raju red and Gopi white.
Q18. If on entry only Gopi is wearing a red cap, what colours do they wear in the photograph?
(A) Anil–Red, Raju–Red, Gopi–Red
(B) Anil–Red, Raju–Red, Gopi–White
(C) Anil–White, Raju–White, Gopi–Red
(D) Anil–White, Raju–White, Gopi–White
Answer: (B)
Exp: Using the transformation rules for the entry pattern white, white, red gives the marked photo pattern red, red, white.
Q19. If in the photograph only Gopi is wearing a white cap, what was the entry combination?
(A) Anil–Red, Raju–White, Gopi–Red
(B) Anil–White, Raju–White, Gopi–Red
(C) Anil–White, Raju–Red, Gopi–Red
(D) Anil–Red, Raju–Red, Gopi–White
Answer: (B)
Exp: Reverse the stated cap transformations from the photo pattern; the source marking indicates white, white, red at entry.
Q20. If in the photograph only Raju is wearing a red cap, what was the entry combination?
(A) Anil–White, Raju–White, Gopi–Red
(B) Anil–White, Raju–Red, Gopi–Red
(C) Anil–Red, Raju–Red, Gopi–White
(D) Anil–Red, Raju–White, Gopi–Red
Answer: (D)
Exp: The source-marked reverse pattern is Anil red, Raju white and Gopi red at entry.
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Q21. If on entry all are wearing red caps, what colours do they wear in the photograph?
(A) Anil–Red, Raju–White, Gopi–White
(B) Anil–Red, Raju–Red, Gopi–Red
(C) Anil–White, Raju–Red, Gopi–White
(D) Anil–Red, Raju–Red, Gopi–White
Answer: (D)
Exp: The rule for all-red entry turns Gopi's cap to white; the source's marked photo pattern is red, red, white.
Q22. If in the photograph Anil and Gopi both are wearing red caps, what was the entry combination?
(A) Anil–White, Raju–White, Gopi–Red
(B) Anil–White, Raju–Red, Gopi–White
(C) Anil–Red, Raju–Red, Gopi–White
(D) Anil–Red, Raju–White, Gopi–Red
Answer: (A)
Exp: Reverse the transformation rules for the photo pattern with Anil and Gopi red; the marked answer is white, white, red at entry.
Q23. Who discovered the occurrence of oil in Assam?
(A) Lieut. R. Wilcox
(B) Major R. Wilcox
(C) Robert Bruce
(D) George Bruce
Answer: (C)
Exp: Robert Bruce is credited with discovering petroleum in Assam in 1825, leading to the region's later oil industry.
Q24. The first capital of the Ahom kingdom was established at _____.
(A) Saraighat
(B) Nagaon
(C) Charaideo
(D) Goalpara
Answer: (C)
Exp: Charaideo, established by Sukaphaa in 1253 CE, served as the first capital of the Ahom kingdom and is known for its royal maidams.
Q25. Rang Ghar was built by _____.
(A) King Rajeshwar Singha
(B) King Rudra Singha
(C) King Pramatta Singha
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)
Exp: Rang Ghar at Sivasagar was built during the reign of Ahom king Pramatta Singha in the 18th century; it served as a royal sports pavilion.
Q26. Which town of Assam is known as the “City of Eternal Romance”?
(A) Guwahati
(B) Tezpur
(C) Garampani
(D) Golaghat
Answer: (B)
Exp: Tezpur is popularly known as the City of Eternal Romance, associated with the legend of Usha and Aniruddha.
Q27. Assam Day is celebrated on _____.
(A) 15th December
(B) 18th November
(C) 17th October
(D) 16th March
Answer: (A)
Exp: Assam Day, also called Sukaphaa Divas, is observed on 2 December; note that the date/options in this scanned paper appear inconsistent, so this item needs answer-key review.
Q28. The Treaty of Yandabo was signed between the East India Company and which of the following?
(A) Ahom King
(B) Chutiya King
(C) Kachari King
(D) King of Burma
Answer: (D)
Exp: The Treaty of Yandabo was signed in 1826 between the British East India Company and the Kingdom of Ava (Burma), ending the First Anglo-Burmese War.
Q29. Who was the first editor of the Assamese periodical magazine Jonaki?
(A) Lakshminath Bezbaruah
(B) Anandaram Dhekial Phukan
(C) Ananda Chandra Agarwala
(D) Chandra Kumar Agarwala
Answer: (D)
Exp: Chandra Kumar Agarwala was the first editor of Jonaki, the Assamese literary magazine launched in 1889 and associated with the Jonaki era.
Q30. Who compiled and published the first Assamese dictionary in 1867?
(A) Miles Bronson
(B) Nathan Brown
(C) Oliver Cutter
(D) Jaduram Dekabaruah
Answer: (A)
Exp: American Baptist missionary Miles Bronson compiled and published the Assamese dictionary in 1867, an important milestone in Assamese lexicography.
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Q31. Which one is the first modern Assamese play?
(A) Jibonor Batot
(B) Ramnavami
(C) Ramdhenu
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
Exp: The source's option set identifies Ramnavami as the first modern Assamese play; early Assamese drama is an important literature-history topic.
Q32. Which one of the following is considered the first Assamese sonnet?
(A) Bokunwari
(B) Gyanmalini
(C) Priyotomar Chithi
(D) Sokulo
Answer: (C)
Exp: The question paper's marked answer is Priyotomar Chithi. Assamese literary chronology questions often distinguish early sonnets from collections and periodicals.
Q33. Which city is famous for the Rock Garden?
(A) Raipur
(B) Chandigarh
(C) Jaisalmer
(D) Kolkata
Answer: (B)
Exp: The Rock Garden of Chandigarh was created by Nek Chand and is a major example of art made from industrial and urban waste.
Q34. The Jallianwala Bagh massacre of 1919 occurred at _____.
(A) Amritsar
(B) Nagpur
(C) Chandigarh
(D) Calcutta
Answer: (A)
Exp: On 13 April 1919, troops under General Dyer fired on a gathering at Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar, Punjab.
Q35. Why is India called a Republic?
(A) The head of the state is elected by the people
(B) There is Parliamentary supremacy
(C) There is an independence of judiciary
(D) None of these above
Answer: (A)
Exp: A republic has an elected head of state; India’s President is elected indirectly by an electoral college under Article 54.
Q36. Under which Article was Jammu and Kashmir accorded special status?
(A) Article 369
(B) Article 370
(C) Article 371
(D) All of these above mentioned Articles
Answer: (B)
Exp: Article 370 of the Constitution provided the former special constitutional status of Jammu and Kashmir; its operation was changed through the 2019 constitutional measures.
Q37. The present Panchayati Raj Act of Assam is known as _____.
(A) Assam Panchayati Raj Act, 1986
(B) Assam Panchayati Raj Act, 1958
(C) Assam Panchayati Raj Act, 1973
(D) Assam Panchayati Raj Act, 1994
Answer: (D)
Exp: The paper lists the Assam Panchayati Raj Act, 1994. Panchayati Raj institutions are constitutionally recognized through the 73rd Amendment Act, 1992.
Q38. SECC stands for _____.
(A) Socio Economic Caste Census
(B) Socio Economic Community Census
(C) Socio Economic and Cultural Committee
(D) Socio Educational and Cultural Committee
Answer: (A)
Exp: SECC stands for Socio-Economic and Caste Census, used to collect household-level socioeconomic and caste-related data.
Q39. Which of the following programmes is not implemented by the Panchayat & Rural Development Department in Assam?
(A) MGNREGA
(B) PMAY-G
(C) PMGSY
(D) NSAP
Answer: (D)
Exp: NSAP (National Social Assistance Programme) is a social assistance programme administered through the rural development framework, but the source marking selects NSAP; departmental implementation arrangements can vary and this requires official-source verification.
Q40. Which organisation/department is involved in developing and nurturing SHGs in Assam?
(A) Department of Panchayat & Rural Development
(B) State Institute of Panchayat & Rural Development
(C) Assam State Rural Livelihood Mission Society
(D) Social Welfare Department, Assam
Answer: (C)
Exp: Assam State Rural Livelihood Mission Society implements livelihood support and community institution-building for rural women’s Self-Help Groups under NRLM.
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Q41. Which is not a key feature of MGNREGA?
(A) 100 days of employment for each registered rural household
(B) Work to be executed using manual labour
(C) Contractors prohibited from executing work
(D) Self-employment to be provided on completion of 100 days by job-card holders
Answer: (D)
Exp: MGNREGA guarantees up to 100 days of wage employment to eligible rural households; it does not promise self-employment after 100 days.
Q42. The minimum size of the house under PMAY-G is _____.
(A) 20 sq. m
(B) 25 sq. m
(C) 30 sq. m
(D) 15 sq. m
Answer: (B)
Exp: PMAY-G provides for a minimum house size of 25 square metres, including a hygienic cooking area.
Q43. Which of the following is not required to make an SHG eligible for financial assistance?
(A) Regular meetings
(B) Regular saving
(C) Good record keeping
(D) Regular cultural events
Answer: (D)
Exp: SHG bank-linkage readiness commonly depends on regular meetings, savings, internal lending and proper records—not on conducting cultural events.
Q44. The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act came into force on _____.
(A) 7 September 2005
(B) 2 February 2006
(C) 23 August 2005
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
Exp: MGNREGA came into force on 2 February 2006, initially in 200 districts; it was later extended nationwide.
Q45. PRA Techniques stand for _____.
(A) Public Resource Assessment
(B) Proper Resource Analysis
(C) Participatory Rural Appraisal
(D) Poverty Reduction Approach
Answer: (C)
Exp: Participatory Rural Appraisal (PRA) uses participatory methods to help communities assess needs, resources and development priorities.
Q46. Who is the ultimate authority for selection of schemes under “Amar Gaon Amar Achoni”?
(A) Block Development Officer
(B) Chairperson of the Gaon Panchayat
(C) Rural people
(D) Both officials and elected representatives of Panchayats
Answer: (C)
Exp: The scheme’s planning approach emphasizes people’s participation; the source marks rural people as the ultimate authority in scheme selection.
Q47. The tenure of every Panchayat shall be five years from the date of _____.
(A) Its first meeting
(B) Issue of notification for conduct of elections
(C) Declaration of election results
(D) Taking oath of office by elected members
Answer: (A)
Exp: Article 243E provides a five-year duration for every Panchayat from the date appointed for its first meeting, unless sooner dissolved.
Q48. Who was the founder of the holy city of Amritsar?
(A) Guru Nanak
(B) Guru Ram Das
(C) Ranjit Singh
(D) Sri Govind Singh
Answer: (B)
Exp: Guru Ram Das, the fourth Sikh Guru, founded Ramdaspur, later known as Amritsar, in the 16th century.
Q49. The coin “Rupia” was first issued by _____.
(A) Sher Shah Suri
(B) Alauddin Khilji
(C) Akbar
(D) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq
Answer: (A)
Exp: Sher Shah Suri standardized the silver rupee, a coinage system that influenced later Indian currency.
Q50. In which year was the capital of India shifted from Calcutta to Delhi?
(A) 1912
(B) 1911
(C) 1910
(D) 1909
Answer: (B)
Exp: The capital shift from Calcutta to Delhi was announced at the Delhi Durbar on 12 December 1911; the transfer took effect in 1912.
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Q51. Which musical instrument is called the “Queen of Musical Instruments”?
(A) Violin
(B) Flute
(C) Veena
(D) Shehnai
Answer: (A)
Exp: The violin is commonly described as the queen of musical instruments because of its expressive range and prominence in orchestral music.
Q52. In world production of natural rubber, India ranks _____.
(A) Second
(B) Third
(C) Fourth
(D) Fifth
Answer: (A)
Exp: India has historically been among the leading natural-rubber producers; rank can vary by year, so the paper’s answer should be treated as tied to its exam-era reference.
Q53. Which Indian state has the largest area under forests?
(A) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Assam
(D) Kerala
Answer: (B)
Exp: Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest area by absolute area among Indian states in the commonly cited Forest Survey of India assessments; forest cover percentage is a different measure.
Q54. Teak grows most abundantly in _____.
(A) Assam and Meghalaya
(B) The Himalayas
(C) Central India
(D) The Western Ghats
Answer: (C)
Exp: Teak is a tropical deciduous timber species abundant in central India and parts of the peninsular region.
Q55. Who elects the Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
(A) Appointed by the President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister
(B) Elected by members of the two Houses at a joint sitting
(C) Appointed by the President
(D) Elected by members of the Lok Sabha
Answer: (D)
Exp: Article 93 provides that the Lok Sabha chooses its Speaker and Deputy Speaker from among its members.
Q56. A body is brought to the surface of the Moon. What happens to its mass and weight?
(A) Its mass will change
(B) Both mass and weight will change
(C) Its weight will change
(D) Its mass and weight both will remain same
Answer: (C)
Exp: Mass is the amount of matter and remains constant; weight depends on gravitational acceleration, which is about one-sixth of Earth’s on the Moon.
Q57. Which pollutant has caused damage to the Taj Mahal?
(A) CO₂
(B) Radioactive waste
(C) CO
(D) SO₂
Answer: (D)
Exp: Sulphur dioxide and other air pollutants contribute to acid deposition and marble deterioration at the Taj Mahal; the paper’s keyed choice is SO₂.
Q58. Soda water contains _____.
(A) Nitrous acid
(B) Carbonic acid
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Sulphuric acid
Answer: (B)
Exp: Carbon dioxide dissolves in water and forms a small amount of carbonic acid (H₂CO₃), giving soda water its characteristic acidity.
Q59. In which country did chess originate?
(A) Greece
(B) England
(C) Australia
(D) India
Answer: (D)
Exp: Chess developed from the Indian game chaturanga, which spread to Persia and then further west.
Q60. SAI stands for _____.
(A) Sportsperson and Athletes of India
(B) Sports Authority of India
(C) Sports Association of India
(D) Sports Agents of India
Answer: (B)
Exp: Sports Authority of India (SAI) is the national body supporting sports training, athlete development and sports infrastructure under the Government of India.
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Q61. Which of the following is not a member of SAARC?
(A) Sri Lanka
(B) Myanmar
(C) Bangladesh
(D) India
Answer: (B)
Exp: SAARC has eight members: Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka. Myanmar is not a member.
Q62. Where is the headquarters of the UN situated?
(A) Washington
(B) London
(C) Geneva
(D) None of these
Answer: (D)
Exp: The United Nations headquarters is in New York City, USA; none of the listed locations (Washington, London, Geneva) is its headquarters.
Q63. “My Experiments with Truth” is written by _____.
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(B) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Answer: (C)
Exp: Mahatma Gandhi’s autobiography is titled The Story of My Experiments with Truth, originally published in installments in the 1920s.
Q64. From where did Mahatma Gandhi start his historic Dandi March?
(A) Champara
(B) Sabarmati Ashram
(C) Chauri Chaura
(D) Dandi
Answer: (B)
Exp: Gandhi began the Salt March from Sabarmati Ashram on 12 March 1930 and reached Dandi on 6 April 1930.
Q65. With what is the Chipko Movement in India related?
(A) Water conservation
(B) Conservation of mineral resources
(C) Conservation of forest and wildlife
(D) Soil conservation
Answer: (C)
Exp: The Chipko Movement was a forest-conservation movement in which villagers, especially women, embraced trees to prevent felling.
Q66. International Women’s Day is celebrated on _____.
(A) March 5
(B) March 1
(C) March 11
(D) March 8
Answer: (D)
Exp: International Women’s Day is observed annually on 8 March, recognizing women’s rights and gender equality.
Q67. What is laughing gas?
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Sulphur dioxide
(C) Hydrogen peroxide
(D) Nitrous oxide
Answer: (D)
Exp: Nitrous oxide (N₂O) is known as laughing gas and has medical anesthetic and analgesic uses.
Q68. Which festival celebrates Christ’s rising from death?
(A) Easter
(B) Good Friday
(C) Christmas
(D) Easter Saturday
Answer: (A)
Exp: Easter celebrates the resurrection of Jesus Christ; Good Friday commemorates his crucifixion.
Q69. “At the stroke of midnight, when the world sleeps, India will awake to life and freedom” was said by _____.
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) Lord Mountbatten
(C) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
Exp: Jawaharlal Nehru delivered the “Tryst with Destiny” speech at the Constituent Assembly on the eve of India’s independence, 14–15 August 1947.
Q70. Which state elects the maximum number of members to the Rajya Sabha?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Bihar
(C) West Bengal
(D) All are equal
Answer: (A)
Exp: Uttar Pradesh has the largest Rajya Sabha representation among states, with 31 seats.
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Q71. Who is the custodian of the Constitution of India?
(A) The President of India
(B) The Prime Minister of India
(C) The Lok Sabha Secretariat
(D) The Supreme Court of India
Answer: (D)
Exp: The Supreme Court is regarded as the guardian of the Constitution, exercising judicial review to protect constitutional supremacy.
Q72. Who acts as the Chancellor of State Universities?
(A) Governor
(B) Chief Minister
(C) Chief Justice of High Court
(D) President
Answer: (A)
Exp: In most Indian states, the Governor is the ex-officio Chancellor of state universities, subject to state-specific laws.
Q73. Who conducts elections to Panchayats and Municipalities?
(A) State Government
(B) Central Government
(C) State Election Commission
(D) Central Election Commission
Answer: (C)
Exp: Articles 243K and 243ZA assign local-body election supervision to the State Election Commission.
Q74. The President’s Rule can be imposed for a period of _____.
(A) 3 months
(B) 6 months
(C) Till the next election is held
(D) It depends upon the President’s wish
Answer: (B)
Exp: Under Article 356, President’s Rule is initially approved for six months and can be extended in six-month periods, subject to constitutional limits and parliamentary approval.
Q75. The Stand-Up India Scheme is associated with _____.
(A) All small entrepreneurs
(B) SC/ST and women entrepreneurs
(C) Only women entrepreneurs
(D) Only entrepreneurs in rural areas
Answer: (B)
Exp: Stand-Up India facilitates bank loans for greenfield enterprises by at least one SC/ST borrower and one woman borrower per bank branch, subject to scheme conditions.
Q76. “Ecomark” is given to Indian products that are _____.
(A) Pure and unadulterated
(B) Rich in proteins
(C) Environment friendly
(D) Economically viable
Answer: (C)
Exp: Ecomark is India’s eco-labelling scheme for products that meet prescribed environmental criteria.
Q77. “Bhoodan Yojana,” involving land gifts by landowners to landless labourers, was started by _____.
(A) Acharya Vinoba Bhave
(B) Acharya Narendra Dev
(C) C. Raj Narain
(D) Medha Patkar
Answer: (A)
Exp: Vinoba Bhave launched the Bhoodan (land-gift) movement in 1951 at Pochampally, Telangana, seeking voluntary redistribution of land.
Q78. During a solar eclipse, _____.
(A) Earth comes between the Sun and the Moon
(B) Moon comes between the Sun and the Earth
(C) Moon comes exactly halfway between Earth and Sun
(D) Sun comes between Earth and Moon
Answer: (B)
Exp: A solar eclipse occurs when the Moon passes between the Sun and Earth and blocks some or all of the Sun’s disk.
Q79. Which of the following is the main constituent of biogas?
(A) Methane and carbon dioxide
(B) Methane and carbon monoxide
(C) Hydrogen and carbon dioxide
(D) Butane and carbon dioxide
Answer: (A)
Exp: Biogas mainly contains methane (CH₄) and carbon dioxide (CO₂), with methane serving as the combustible component.
Q80. Which one among the following is the richest source of vegetarian proteins?
(A) Gram
(B) Wheat
(C) Soybean
(D) Rice
Answer: (C)
Exp: Soybean is a protein-rich legume and contains substantially more protein per unit weight than most common cereal grains.
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Q81. The acronym HTML stands for _____.
(A) High Transfer Machine Language
(B) High Transmission Mark-up Language
(C) Hyper-Text Mark-up Language
(D) Hypermedia Mark-up Language
Answer: (C)
Exp: HTML stands for HyperText Markup Language, the standard markup language used to structure web pages.
Q82. Which of the following is not a computer language?
(A) BASIC
(B) COBOL
(C) LOTUS
(D) FORTRAN
Answer: (C)
Exp: BASIC, COBOL and FORTRAN are programming languages; Lotus is associated with spreadsheet software (Lotus 1-2-3), not a programming language in this option context.
Q83. All formulae in Excel start with _____.
Answer: (C)
Exp: In Microsoft Excel, a formula begins with an equals sign (=), followed by the expression or function.
Q84. The file extension used for Microsoft PowerPoint slide-show files is _____.
(A) .exe
(B) .ppt
(C) .pot
(D) .pos
Answer: (B)
Exp: The traditional PowerPoint presentation file extension is .ppt; newer PowerPoint formats commonly use .pptx.
Q85. BIOS stands for _____.
(A) Basic Input Output System
(B) Base Input Output System
(C) Broad Information Output System
(D) Basic Information Operating System
Answer: (A)
Exp: BIOS means Basic Input/Output System; it initializes hardware and starts the boot process on traditional PC firmware.
Q86. Which scientist wrote a book called “A Brief History of Time”?
(A) Stephen Hawking
(B) Edward Jenner
(C) J. L. Baird
(D) Pasteur
Answer: (A)
Exp: Stephen Hawking published A Brief History of Time in 1988, explaining cosmology for general readers.
Q87. The Nobel Prize is not given in the field of _____.
(A) Literature
(B) Economics
(C) Chemistry
(D) Mathematics
Answer: (D)
Exp: The Nobel Prizes cover Physics, Chemistry, Physiology or Medicine, Literature and Peace; Economics is a later memorial prize. There is no Nobel Prize in Mathematics.
Q88. Which of the following is a biodegradable waste?
(A) Aluminium cans
(B) Plastics
(C) Kitchen waste
(D) DDT
Answer: (C)
Exp: Kitchen waste is organic and generally biodegradable; aluminium, many plastics and DDT do not readily biodegrade.
Q89. The cleanest fossil fuel is _____.
(A) Petroleum
(B) Coal
(C) Natural gas
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)
Exp: Natural gas, mainly methane, generally emits less carbon dioxide and fewer conventional air pollutants per unit of energy than coal or petroleum.
Q90. The capital city of Uttarakhand is _____.
(A) Raipur
(B) Dehradun
(C) Ranchi
(D) Patna
Answer: (B)
Exp: Dehradun is Uttarakhand’s winter/administrative capital; Gairsain is designated its summer capital.
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Q91. A plane mirror produces _____.
(A) A virtual and erect image
(B) An image of the same size
(C) A laterally inverted image
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
Exp: A plane mirror forms a virtual, erect, same-sized image with lateral inversion.
Q92. The SI unit of electric current is _____.
(A) Newton
(B) Volt
(C) Coulomb
(D) Ampere
Answer: (D)
Exp: The ampere (A) is the SI base unit of electric current.
Q93. The least count of a metre scale is _____.
(A) 1 cm
(B) 1 mm
(C) 1 m
(D) 1 km
Answer: (B)
Exp: A standard metre scale has its smallest division of 1 mm, which is its least count.
Q94. A thermometer is a device used to measure _____.
(A) Temperature
(B) Heat
(C) Specific heat
(D) Latent heat
Answer: (A)
Exp: A thermometer measures temperature, not the quantity of heat transferred or stored.
Q95. Stars twinkle at night because _____.
(A) They emit light intermittently
(B) Their atmosphere absorbs light intermittently
(C) Earth’s atmosphere absorbs light intermittently
(D) The refractive index of air in the atmosphere fluctuates
Answer: (D)
Exp: Atmospheric turbulence causes rapid variations in the refractive index along the starlight path, producing apparent changes in brightness and position (scintillation).
Q96. Who developed the first thermometer?
(A) Joule
(B) Galileo
(C) Kelvin
(D) Fahrenheit
Answer: (B)
Exp: Galileo is credited with an early thermoscope, a precursor to the thermometer; calibrated thermometers were developed later.
Q97. Animal nutrition is _____.
(A) Autotrophic
(B) Heterotrophic
(C) Holozoic
(D) Saprophytic
Answer: (B)
Exp: Animals obtain organic nutrients from other organisms and are therefore heterotrophs; holozoic nutrition is a common mode among animals.
Q98. Which of the following white blood corpuscles produces antibodies?
(A) Neutrophil
(B) Lymphocyte
(C) Monocyte
(D) Basophil
Answer: (B)
Exp: B lymphocytes differentiate into plasma cells that secrete antibodies; lymphocytes are central to adaptive immunity.
Q99. Who won the Gold medal in Commonwealth Games 2018 Badminton Women’s Singles?
(A) P. V. Sindhu
(B) Chen Long
(C) Li Xuerui
(D) Saina Nehwal
Answer: (D)
Exp: Saina Nehwal won the women’s singles gold at the 2018 Commonwealth Games in Gold Coast, Australia.
Q100. Which film won the Best Feature Film Award at the 65th National Film Awards 2018?
(A) Village Rockstars
(B) Bhayanakam
(C) Nagar Kirtan
(D) Toilet Ek Prem Katha
Answer: (A)
Exp: Village Rockstars, directed by Rima Das and made in Assam, won the Best Feature Film award at the 65th National Film Awards announced in 2018.
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