Indian Polity

Q1. Which one of the following Amendments of the Constitution of India deals with the issue of strengthening of the Panchayati Raj?

(A) 42nd

(B) 44th

(C) 73rd

(D) 86th

Answer: (C)

Exp: The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj institutions. It inserted Part IX, titled “The Panchayats,” and added the Eleventh Schedule containing 29 subjects. It came into force on 24 April 1993.

Q2. Which of the language is not included in the 8th Schedule of the Constitution?

(A) English

(B) Hindi

(C) Sanskrit

(D) Urdu

Answer: (A)

Exp: Eighth Schedule contains 22 languages; English is not one of them. The Constitution originally listed 14 languages; Sindhi was added by the 21st Amendment, 1967, three languages by the 71st Amendment, 1992, and four more by the 92nd Amendment, 2003.

Q3. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts was termed as Mini Constitution?

(A) 42nd

(B) 44th

(C) 46th

(D) 50th

Answer: (A)

Exp: The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 is known as the “Mini-Constitution” because of its wide-ranging changes. It added Socialist, Secular and Integrity to the Preamble and made major changes in several constitutional provisions. The amendment was enacted during the Emergency period.

Q4. When was the ASSAM RTI Act enacted in Assam?

(A) 2000

(B) 2001

(C) 2002

(D) 2003

Answer: (B)

Exp: The Assam Right to Information Act was enacted in 2001. It received assent and was notified in the Assam Gazette on 7 May 2002, when it came into force. It preceded the central Right to Information Act, 2005.

Q5. The National Motto of India is:

(A) Satyamev Jayate

(B) Vande Mataram

(C) Jai Jawan Jai Kisan

(D) Jai Hindi

Answer: (A)

Exp: ‘Satyameva Jayate’ is taken from the Mundaka Upanishad. It was adopted as the national motto on 26 January 1950.

Q6. The distribution of Legislative powers between the Centre and the States in the Constitution is given in:

(A) Sixth Schedule

(B) Seventh Schedule

(C) Eighth Schedule

(D) Ninth Schedule

Answer: (B)

Exp: The Seventh Schedule contains the Union List, State List and Concurrent List, allocating legislative subjects between the Union and States. This division is linked to Article 246.

Q7. The Finance Commission consists of a Chairman and:

(A) Seven other members

(B) Five other members

(C) Four other members

(D) The President

Answer: (C)

Exp: Article 280 provides for the Finance Commission. It consists of a Chairman and four other members, appointed by the President. It is normally constituted every five years or earlier if considered necessary.

Q8. Which Constitutional Amendment led the establishment of the Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes?

(A) 41st Constitutional Amendment

(B) 82nd Constitutional Amendment

(C) 65th Constitutional Amendment

(D) 76th Constitutional Amendment

Answer: (C)

Exp: The 65th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1990 replaced the earlier single-member Special Officer arrangement with a multi-member Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes under Article 338. The first constitutional Commission under the 65th Amendment was constituted in 1992.

Q9. Which one of the following cannot be the ground for proclamation of Emergency under the Constitution of India?

(A) War

(B) Armed rebellion

(C) External aggression

(D) Internal disturbance

Answer: (D)

Exp: Article 352 deals with National Emergency. The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 replaced ‘internal disturbance’ with ‘armed rebellion’ as a ground for National Emergency.

Q10. CAA (Bill) 2019 provides a path to Indian citizenship for person belonging to religious minority groups persecuted in:

(A) Pakistan

(B) Bangladesh

(C) Afghanistan

(D) All of these

Answer: (D)

Exp: The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 concerns specified non-Muslim communities from Pakistan, Bangladesh and Afghanistan who meet the statutory conditions. The Act was enacted in December 2019; the rules were notified in 2024.

Q11. Which Amendment Act introduced changes in the Preamble to the Indian Constitution?

(A) The 38th Amendment Act, 1975

(B) The 40th Amendment Act, 1976

(C) The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976

(D) The 44th Amendment Act, 1979

Answer: (C)

Exp: The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 inserted the words ‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’ and ‘Integrity’ into the Preamble. The amendment was enacted in 1976.

Q12. Who is referred as the Supreme Commander of forces in India?

(A) General of the Army

(B) Defence Minister

(C) President

(D) Field Marshal

Answer: (C)

Exp: Article 53 provides that the President exercises the supreme command of the Defence Forces of the Union, subject to law. Article 53(2) deals with the exercise of this command in accordance with law.

Q13. Which of the following was not included when the writing of the Constitution of India was completed on 29th November, 1949?

(A) Fundamental Rights

(B) Fundamental Duties

(C) President’s Rule

(D) Emergency

Answer: (B)

Exp: Fundamental Duties were not part of the original Constitution. They were added by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 and are contained in Part IVA, Article 51A.

Q14. The idea of Preamble has been borrowed in Indian Constitution from the Constitution of:

(A) Italy

(B) Canada

(C) France

(D) USA

Answer: (D)

Exp: The Indian Constitution’s Preamble was influenced by the Preamble of the U.S. Constitution. The U.S. Constitution begins with ‘We the People’, a formulation also reflected in India’s Preamble.

Q15. The Right to Education for children aged 6–14 became a Fundamental Right in:

(A) 1998

(B) 2001

(C) 2002

(D) 2000

Answer: (C)

Exp: The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 inserted Article 21A for free and compulsory education of children aged 6–14.

Q16. Who was Chairman of the First Finance Commission of India?

(A) Shri Santhanam

(B) K. C. Neogy

(C) Dr. Raj Mannar

(D) A. K. Chanda

Answer: (B)

Exp: The First Finance Commission was constituted in 1951 under Article 280 and was chaired by K. C. Neogy.

Q17. Who described the Directive Principles as a novel feature of the Constitution?

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru

(B) Rajendra Prasad

(C) S. N. Mukherjee

(D) B. R. Ambedkar

Answer: (D)

Exp: B. R. Ambedkar described the Directive Principles as a novel feature. They are contained in Part IV, Articles 36–51.

Q18. Which is NOT a Fundamental Right today?

(A) Right to equality

(B) Right against exploitation

(C) Right to property

(D) Right to carry on trade and business

Answer: (C)

Exp: The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 removed the Right to Property from Fundamental Rights. It is now a constitutional right under Article 300A.

Q19. Article 21 ensures:

(A) Right to Religion

(B) Due Process of Law

(C) Right to Life and Personal Liberty

(D) Procedure established by Law

Answer: (C)

Exp: Article 21 protects life and personal liberty. It states that no person shall be deprived of them except according to procedure established by law. It is in Part III.

Q20. Which Bill cannot be first introduced in Rajya Sabha?

(A) Ordinary Bill

(B) Constitutional Amendment Bill

(C) State Re-organisation Bill

(D) Money Bill

Answer: (D)

Exp: A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha. Article 110 defines a Money Bill and the Rajya Sabha can only recommend changes within 14 days.

Q21. Which state has the largest number of Rajya Sabha seats?

(A) Uttar Pradesh

(B) Bihar

(C) Rajasthan

(D) Karnataka

Answer: (A)

Exp: Uttar Pradesh elects 31 Rajya Sabha members, the highest among states. It also has 80 Lok Sabha seats.

Q22. Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution is provided by:

(A) Article 368

(B) Article 103

(C) Article 129

(D) Article 234

Answer: (A)

Exp: Article 368 provides Parliament’s constitutional amendment power and procedure. Some federal provisions also require ratification by at least half of the states.

Q23. Which Constitutional Amendment reduced the voting age from 21 to 18?

(A) 66th Amendment

(B) 62nd Amendment

(C) 61st Amendment

(D) 63rd Amendment

Answer: (C)

Exp: The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988 reduced the voting age from 21 to 18 years by amending Article 326.

Q24. The ideal of a Welfare State is mainly enshrined in:

(A) Preamble

(B) Directive Principles of State Policy

(C) Fundamental Rights

(D) Seventh Schedule

Answer: (B)

Exp: The Welfare State ideal is primarily reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy, Part IV. They guide the State toward social and economic justice.

Q25. Article 51A contains:

(A) Fundamental Duties

(B) Suspension of Fundamental Rights

(C) Special powers of Governors

(D) Writs

Answer: (A)

Exp: Fundamental Duties are in Article 51A, Part IVA. They were inserted by the 42nd Amendment, 1976; an 11th duty was added by the 86th Amendment.

Q26. Which statement about the Vice-President is NOT correct?

(A) He is not eligible for re-election

(B) He must be at least 35 years old

(C) He is elected by members of both Houses of Parliament

(D) All are correct

Answer: (A)

Exp: The Vice-President is eligible for re-election, so statement A is incorrect. Article 66 deals with election and Article 67 with term of office.

Q27. Which provisions provide for equality of men and women before law and protection against sex discrimination?

(A) Articles 14 and 15

(B) Fifth Schedule

(C) Indian Independence Act

(D) Article 20

Answer: (A)

Exp: Article 14 guarantees equality before law and equal protection, while Article 15 prohibits specified discrimination including on grounds of sex. Both are in Part III.

Q28. Which former justice of Supreme Court has been appointed as the first Lokpal of India?

(A) K Subba Rao

(B) Pinaki Chandra Ghosh

(C) AM Lodha

(D) Deepak Mishra

Answer: (B)

Exp: Pinaki Chandra Ghosh was appointed India's first Lokpal in 2019. The Lokpal is established under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013.

Q29. Name the woman who was the first woman Judge of Delhi High Court.

(A) Sujata Manohar

(B) Anna Chandy

(C) Leila Seth

(D) Rama Paul

Answer: (C)

Exp: Leila Seth was the first woman judge of the Delhi High Court and became the first woman Chief Justice of a state High Court on 5 August 1991.

Q30. National Voters' Day is celebrated on:

(A) 15 January

(B) 25 January

(C) 15 February

(D) 25 February

Answer: (B)

Exp: 25 January is National Voters' Day. It was first observed in 2011, marking the Election Commission's foundation day of 25 January 1950.

Q31. Which personality is known as ‘Deshratna’?

(A) Mahatma Gandhi

(B) Dr Rajendra Prasad

(C) Raja Ram Mohan Roy

(D) Gopal Krishna Gokhale

Answer: (B)

Exp: Dr Rajendra Prasad is known as Deshratna and was India's first President from 1950–1962.

Q32. Where is Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration?

(A) Gurugram

(B) New Delhi

(C) Mussoorie

(D) Nainital

Answer: (C)

Exp: LBSNAA is located at Mussoorie, Uttarakhand and was established in 1959.

Q33. The Chairman of the State Public Service Commission is appointed by:

(A) Chairman of UPSC

(B) President of India

(C) Governor of the State

(D) Chief Minister

Answer: (C)

Exp: Article 316 provides for appointment of the Chairman and members of a State Public Service Commission by the Governor.

Q34. The birthday of which personality is celebrated every year on 14 April?

(A) Dr Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan

(B) Dr B. R. Ambedkar

(C) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

(D) Dr A. P. J. Abdul Kalam

Answer: (B)

Exp: Dr B. R. Ambedkar was born on 14 April 1891; Ambedkar Jayanti is observed annually on 14 April.

Q35. Which foreign national was honoured with Bharat Ratna?

(A) Nelson Mandela

(B) Bill Clinton

(C) Adolf Hitler

(D) Boris Yeltsin

Answer: (A)

Exp: Nelson Mandela received the Bharat Ratna in 1990.

Q36. Financial distribution between Union and States takes place on recommendations of the:

(A) Finance Commission

(B) Inter-State Council

(C) Planning Commission

(D) Sarkaria Commission

Answer: (A)

Exp: Finance Commission recommends tax devolution between Union and States under Article 280.

Q37. The Union Public Service Commission submits its annual report to the:

(A) Prime Minister

(B) President

(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha

(D) Home Minister

Answer: (B)

Exp: Article 323 requires UPSC to submit its annual report to the President, who lays it before Parliament.

Q38. Who is considered the ‘Architect of Panchayati Raj in India’?

(A) Acharya Narendra Dev

(B) G. V. K. Rao

(C) B. R. Mehta

(D) L. M. Singhvi

Answer: (C)

Exp: Balwant Rai Mehta is called the architect of Panchayati Raj; his committee recommended a three-tier system in 1957.

Q39. Election to the office of the President is conducted by:

(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha

(B) Prime Minister's Office

(C) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs

(D) Election Commission of India

Answer: (D)

Exp: Article 324 vests control of elections, including the Presidential election, in the Election Commission of India.

Q40. Which Article of the Indian Constitution prohibits discrimination on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex and place of birth?

(A) Article 25

(B) Article 19

(C) Article 23

(D) Article 15

Answer: (D)

Exp: Article 15 prohibits discrimination against citizens on specified grounds. It is part of Fundamental Rights in Part III.

Q41. Who was the President of India at the time of proclamation of emergency in the year 1975?

(A) V V Giri

(B) Giani Zail Singh

(C) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad

(D) Shankar Dayal Sharma

Answer: (C)

Exp: The President during the National Emergency of 1975 was Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed. It was proclaimed on 25 June 1975 under Article 352.

Q42. By which of the following Acts were the High court’s of Bombay, Madras and Calcutta established?

(A) India High Courts Act, 1911

(B) India High Courts Act, 1865

(C) India High Courts Act, 1861

(D) None of the above

Answer: (C)

Exp: The Presidency High Courts at Calcutta, Bombay and Madras were established under the Indian High Courts Act, 1861; they began functioning in 1862.

Q43. The reservation of seats for Anglo-Indian Community in the lok Sabha and State assemblies has been done away with

(A) 104th Constitutional Amendment Act

(B) 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act

(C) 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act

(D) 105th Constitutional Amendment Act

Answer: (A)

Exp: The 104th Constitutional Amendment Act ended the nominated-seat provision for the Anglo-Indian community in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies. It was enacted in 2019 and took effect in 2020.

Q44. Who had proposed ‘Partyless Democracy’ in India?

(A) SA Dange

(B) Ram Manohar Lohiya

(C) Mahatma Gandhi

(D) Jayaprakash Narayan

Answer: (D)

Exp: Jayaprakash Narayan advocated partyless democracy as part of his concept of total revolution, emphasising decentralisation and people’s participation.

Q45. The Articles of the Constitution of India which deal with Directive Principles of State Policy are:

(A) 26 to 41

(B) 30 to 45

(C) 36 to 51

(D) 40 to 55

Answer: (C)

Exp: Articles 36–51 contain the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV of the Constitution.

Q46. Which Commission advocated the establishment of a Permanent Inter- State Council, called ‘Inter- Governmental Council?

(A) Punchhi Commission

(B) Sarkaria Commission

(C) Radhakrishnan Commission

(D) Moily Commission

Answer: (B)

Exp: The Sarkaria Commission recommended a permanent Inter-State Council. The Council was established under Article 263 in 1990.

Q47. The power to make treaties with other nations lies with:

(A) the Parliament

(B) the Prime Minister of India

(C) the President of India

(D) None of the above

Answer: (C)

Exp: The president may negotiate treaties with foreign nations, but he must obtain advice and consent from the Senate In India, treaty-making is an executive function; legislation may be required to implement a treaty domestically under Article 253.

Q48. Chairperson and Members of the State Human Rights Commission are appointed by:

(A) Governor

(B) President

(C) Chief Justice of the High Court of the concerned State

(D) Chief Justice of India

Answer: (A)

Exp: The chairperson and members of a State Human Rights Commission are appointed by the governor they can only be removed by the President (and not by the Governor) The State Human Rights Commission is governed by the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.

Q49. The decentralisation system was recommended by:

(A) C. Rajgopalachari

(B) J B Kriplani

(C) Balwant Rai Mehta

(D) Ashok Mehta

Answer: (C)

Exp: Decentralized planning on the basis of Panchayati Raj institutions was recommended by Balawant Rai Mehta Committee The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee submitted its report in 1957 and recommended a three-tier Panchayati Raj system.

Q50. Who was the first Chief Justice of the Assam High Court?

(A) Ranjan Gogoi.

(B) R.F. Lodge

(C) Bishnu Ram Medhi.

(D) Gauri Sankar Bhattacharya

Answer: (B)

Exp: R. F. Lodge (He sworn in as the first CJI of Assam High Court on 5th April, 1948) The source records R. F. Lodge as the first Chief Justice, taking office on 5 April 1948.

Q51. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution, the Assam State Finance Commission was established?

(A) Article 371 (B)

(B) Article 352

(C) Article 370.

(D) Article 243-I

Answer: (D)

Exp: Article 243-I Article 243-I provides for State Finance Commissions.

Q52. The Supreme Court has declared access to the Internet a fundamental right under Article ______ of the Indian Constitution.

(A) 14

(B) 21

(C) 19

(D) 17

Answer: (C)

Exp: The Supreme Court has declared access to the internet a fundamental right under Article 19 of the Indian Constitution. Article 19 deals with Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech etc In Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of India (2020), the Supreme Court linked Internet-based speech and expression with Article 19(1)(a).

Q53. Who presides the joint session of Parliament?

(A) President of India

(B) Chairperson of Rajya Sabha

(C) Senior most member of Parliament

(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Answer: (D)

Exp: The joint sitting of the Parliament is called by the President of India (Article 108) and is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha Article 108 deals with joint sittings of Parliament.

Q54. Who was the first Chairman of the Backward Classes Commission?

(A) Jagjivan Ram

(B) Kaka Saheb Kalelkar

(C) B D Sharma

(D) B R Ambedkar

Answer: (B)

Exp: The First Backward Class Commission was set up by a Presidential Order under Article 340 of the Constitution of India on Jan 29th, 1953, under the Chairmanship of Shri Kaka Kalelkar (popularly known as Kaka Kalelkar Commission) The first Backward Classes Commission was appointed in 1953 under Article 340.

Q55. In the logo of Lokpal, Vigilance is represented by:

(A) Tricolour

(B) Ashoka Chakra

(C) Judges Bench

(D) Two hands

Answer: (B)

Exp: The logo of Lokpal is based upon the literal meaning of LOKPAL, LOK – meaning people and PAL – meaning caretaker, i.e. "caretaker of people". The Logo is designed by Shri Prashant Mishra, Prayagraj, Uttar Pradesh The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act was enacted in 2013.

Q56. Which Article of the Constitution provides that every state shall endeavour to provide an adequate facility for instruction in mother-tongue at primary stage of education?

(A) Article 349

(B) Article 350

(C) Article 350-A

(D) Article 351

Answer: (C)

Exp: Article 350-A deals with the facilities for instruction in mother-tongue at primary stage Article 350A concerns mother-tongue instruction at the primary stage for linguistic minority children.

Q57. Who in the beginning, presented the idea of Indian Constituent Assembly in pre-independence day?

(A) MN Roy

(B) BR Ambedkar

(C) Annie Besant

(D) Jawaharlal Nehru

Answer: (A)

Exp: The idea of a Constituent Assembly for India for the first time was put forward by M.N. Roy was a pioneer of the communist movement in India in 1934 M. N. Roy proposed the idea in 1934; the Constituent Assembly was later formed in 1946

Q58. As per the Constitution of India, the President may resign his office by writing under his hand addressed to:

(A) Chief Election Commission

(B) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha

(C) The Chief Justice of India

(D) The Vice President

Answer: (D)

Exp: The President addresses the resignation letter to the Vice-President

Q59. Which Act established Public Service Commission in India for the first time?

(A) Indian Council Act, 1892

(B) Council Act, 1909

(C) Government of India Act, 1919

(D) Government of India Act, 1935

Answer: (C)

Exp: Public service commission in India was established by the Government of India act 1919 The Government of India Act, 1919 introduced the Public Service Commission provision; the first PSC was established in 1926

Q60. How many times has Financial Emergency been declared in India so far?

(A) 5 times

(B) 4 times

(C) Once

(D) Never

Answer: (D)

Exp: Financial Emergency has never been imposed in India till date A Financial Emergency under Article 360 has never been proclaimed in India

Q61. Who presided over the inaugural meeting of the Constituent Assembly of India?

(A) Dr Rajendra Prasad

(B) Dr Sachidanand Sinha

(C) BR Ambedkar

(D) Sardar Patel

Answer: (B)

Exp: Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha presided over the inaugural meeting of the Constituent Assembly of India. The inaugural meeting took place on December 9, 1946 The first meeting was held on 9 December 1946; Dr Rajendra Prasad was later elected permanent President

Q62. “To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India”, is a provision made in:

(A) Preamble of the Constitution

(B) Directive Principles of State Policy

(C) Fundamental Rights

(D) Fundamental Duties

Answer: (D)

Exp: were added to the Constitution by 42nd Amendment Act on the recommendation of Swaran Singh Committee. ‘To uphold and protect [81] the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India’, is enshrined as one of the Fundamental Duties under Article 51A(c) of the Indian Constitution This duty appears in Article 51A(c) in Part IVA and was inserted by the 42nd Amendment in 1976

Q63. Archaeological Survey of India is an attached office of the Department/ Ministry of:

(A) Culture

(B) Tourism

(C) Science and Technology

(D) Human Resource Development

Answer: (A)

Exp: The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI), under the Ministry of Culture, was established in the year 1861 ASI is an attached office of the Ministry of Culture and traces its institutional origin to 1861

Q64. The Speaker can stop a member of Parliament from speaking and let another member speak. This phenomenon is known as:

(A) Decorum

(B) Crossing the floor

(C) Interpellation

(D) Yielding the floor

Answer: (D)

Exp: The speaker of the Lok sabha can ask a member of the house to stop speaking and let another member speak. It is known as yielding the floor Yielding the floor means giving another member an opportunity to speak after the current speaker stops

Q65. What is the quorum to constitute a meeting of Lok Sabha?

(A) One-sixth of the total members of the House

(B) One-tenth of the total members of the House

(C) One-fourth of the total members of the House

(D) One-third of the total members of the House

Answer: (B)

Exp: The quorum of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha is one-tenth of the total membership of each house The constitutional quorum for either House is one-tenth of its total membership

Q66. What are the maximum number of seats fixed for Rajya Sabha in India?

(A) 245 seats

(B) 252 seats

(C) 260 seats

(D) 250 seats

Answer: (D)

Exp: The Rajya Sabha should consist of not more than 250 members - 238 members representing the States and Union Territories, and 12 members nominated by the President Article 80 provides for a maximum of 250 members in Rajya Sabha: 238 elected representatives and 12 nominated members

Q67. ______ is not formally prescribed device available to members of parliament.

(A) Zero hour

(B) Call Attention Notice

(C) Half-an hour discussion

(D) Short-duration discussion

Answer: (A)

Exp: The time gap between the question hour and agenda is known for zero hour. It is not mentioned in the Rules of procedure Zero Hour is a parliamentary practice but is not formally mentioned in the Rules of Procedure

Q68. Which Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the administrative provisions of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram?

(A) First

(B) Second

(C) Sixth

(D) Fifth

Answer: (C)

Exp: “The provisions of the Sixth Schedule shall apply to the administration of the tribal areas in the State of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram”. [83] The Sixth Schedule provides autonomous administration for specified tribal areas, including those in Assam

Q69. The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?

(A) The Preamble

(B) The Fundamental Rights

(C) The Directive Principles of State Policy

(D) The Fundamental Duties

Answer: (A)

Exp: The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in Preamble The Preamble expresses the constitutional ideals and objectives adopted by the Constituent Assembly

Q70. Which kind of emergency can be proclaimed on the grounds of failure of Constitutional machinery in States?

(A) National Emergency

(B) State Emergency

(C) Financial Emergency

(D) State and Financial Emergency both

Answer: (B)

Exp: According to Article 356, President's Rule can be imposed on any state of India on the grounds of the failure of the constitutional machinery Article 356 deals with failure of constitutional machinery in a state and is commonly called President’s Rule

Q71. Who among the following is the custodian of the Constitution of India?

(A) The President of India

(B) The Prime Minister of India

(C) The Lok Sabha Secretariat

(D) The Supreme Court of India

Answer: (D)

Exp: is the apex court in India. As stated by the Indian Constitution, the function of the Supreme Court of India is that of a custodian of the Constitution The Supreme Court has the constitutional role of protecting and interpreting the Constitution

Q72. By which one of the following Constitutional Amendments Delhi has become National Capital Region (NCR)?

(A) 61st Amendment

(B) 69th Amendment

(C) 71th Amendment

(D) 79th Amendment

Answer: (B)

Exp: Constitutional Amendment Act of 1991 designated the Union Territory of Delhi as the National Capital Territory of Delhi The 69th Amendment Act, 1991 inserted special provisions for Delhi and designated it as the National Capital Territory

Q73. The first non-Congress Government at the Centre was led by:

(A) ) Jaya Prakash Narayan

(B) Morarji Desai

(C) Chaudhury Charan Singh

(D) Atal Bihari Vajpayee

Answer: (B)

Exp: of Janata Party was the first non-Congress Prime Minister of India. He was the 4th PM (1977-1979) of India Morarji Desai became Prime Minister in 1977 after the Janata Party defeated the Congress

Q74. According to Article 170 of the Indian Constitution, the minimum and maximum strength of members of Legislative Assembly in a state can be respectively:

(A) 40 and 400

(B) 50 and 450

(C) 50 and 500

(D) 60 and 500

Answer: (D)

Exp: The Legislative Assembly consists of not more than 500 members and not less than 60. The Legislative Assembly of Assam comprises 126 Members.

Q75. Election to the office of President is conducted by:

(A) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(B) The Prime Minister’s Office

(C) The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs

(D) The Election Commission of India

Answer: (D)

Exp: Under Article 324 of the Constitution of India, the authority to conduct elections to the Office of President is vested in the Election Commission of India.

Q76. In which case did the Supreme Court first declare that the Preamble is not a part of the Constitution?

(A) Berubari

(B) Sajjan Singh

(C) Golak Nath

(D) Kesavanand Bharti

Answer: (A)

Exp: In the Berubari case (1960) the Supreme Court of India declared that the Preamble is not an integral part of the Indian Constitution.

Q77. As per Indian Protocol, who among the following ranks highest in the Order of Precedence?

(A) Deputy Prime Minister

(B) Former President

(C) Governor of a State within his State

(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Answer: (C)

Exp: Under the Indian Order of Precedence, a Governor ranks very high within the state where he or she is serving; the source therefore marks the Governor of a State within his State option.

Q78. The concept of single citizenship in the Indian Constitution is inspired by which country?

(A) Germany

(B) France

(C) Ireland

(D) England

Answer: (D)

Exp: This Concept of Single Citizenship is borrowed from the British Constitution.

Q79. Under which Article, the Supreme Court has the power to review its own judgement or order?

(A) Article 137

(B) Article 254

(C) Article 256

(D) Article 142

Answer: (A)

Exp: Article 137 of the Constitution of India grants the Supreme Court the power to review any of its judgments or orders.

Q80. Who was the first woman to become a Chief Election Commissioner of India?

(A) RM Nikaur

(B) SK Bedi

(C) VS Ramadevi

(D) GD Das

Answer: (C)

Exp: V. S. Ramadevi was the first woman Chief Election Commissioner of India. Apart from this, she was also the first female Governor of Karnataka.

Q81. Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of the Indian Parliament separately by the special majority?

(A) Ordinary Bill

(B) Money Bill

(C) Finance Bill

(D) Constitution Amendment Bill

Answer: (D)

Exp: A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by each House of Parliament separately with the special majority prescribed by Article 368. There is no joint sitting for such a bill.

Q82. Under which Amendment to the Constitution of India was Goods and Services Tax imposed?

(A) 97th

(B) 99th

(C) 100th

(D) 101st

Answer: (D)

Exp: 101st Constitution Amendment Act, 2016 introduced the Goods and Services Tax. GST Bill was first introduced in 2014 as The Constitution (122nd Amendment) Bill.

Q83. Who among the following is the State Legislature decides whether bill is a Money Bill or not?

(A) Speaker of Legislative Assembly

(B) Chief Minister

(C) Chairman of Legislative Council

(D) Leader of Majority Party

Answer: (A)

Exp: The Speaker of the Legislative assembly conducts the business in house and decides whether a bill is a money bill or not.

Q84. Which Amendment of the Constitution provided constitutional status to the Panchayats?

(A) 56th Amendment

(B) 73rd Amendment

(C) 74rd Amendment

(D) 76th Amendment

Answer: (B)

Exp: 73rd amendment of Constitution of India (1993) empowered local governments.

Q85. The Constitution (35th Amendment) Act of 1974 is related to which one of the following States?

(A) Mizoram

(B) Sikkim

(C) Nagaland

(D) Arunachal Pradesh

Answer: (B)

Exp: 35th Amendment Act, 1974 The status of Sikkim as a protectorate state was terminated and Sikkim was given the status of ‘Associate State’ of India.

Q86. Equality before the law or equal protection of the laws within the territory of India is guaranteed under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?

(A) Article 14

(B) Article 15

(C) Article 16

(D) Article 22

Answer: (A)

Exp: One such right is the right to equality which is protected under articles 14 to 18. Article 14 is the most significant of the lot.

Q87. Who among the following fixes the date of election of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha?

(A) The President of India

(B) The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs

(C) The Secretary General of the Lok Sabha

(D) The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Answer: (A)

Exp: The date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President. The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker.

Q88. Under the Constitution of India which of the following is NOT a Fundamental Duty?

(A) To vote in General Election

(B) To develop the scientific temper

(C) To safeguard public property

(D) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideas

Answer: (A)

Exp: The Fundamental Duties are defined as the moral obligations of all citizens to help promote a spirit of patriotism and to uphold the unity of India.

Q89. Who was the first Indian women to elected as President of United Nation General Assembly?

(A) Vijaya lakshmi Pandit

(B) Nargis Dutt

(C) Sucheta Kripalani

(D) Sarojini Naidu

Answer: (A)

Exp: Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit was an Indian diplomat and politician who was elected as the first female president of the United Nations General Assembly.

Q90. The Union Public Service Commission can be entrusted with the functions of a State Public Service Commission with the approval of:

(A) Chief Justice of India

(B) Prime Minister

(C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(D) President of India

Answer: (D)

Exp: Union Public Service Commission may agree to serve the needs of the state on the request of the Governor with approval of the President.

Q91. The provisions relating to Fundamental Duties in the Constitution of India were added on the recommendation of:

(A) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee.

(B) Iyengar Committee.

(C) Swarn Singh Committee.

(D) Thakkar Commission.

Answer: (C)

Exp: Through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment in 1976, a total of ten fundamental duties were listed down in the Constitution. They were based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.

Q92. In which article of Indian constitution is Attorney General mentioned?

(A) Article 76

(B) Article 79

(C) Article 78

(D) Article 77

Answer: (A)

Exp: Article 76 of the constitution mentions that the Attorney General of India is the highest law officer of India.

Q93. Which Article of the Indian Constitution speaks about functions of public service commission’s?

(A) Article 327

(B) Article 320

(C) Article 324

(D) Article 326

Answer: (B)

Exp: Article 320 deals with the functions of the public service commission.

Q94. Who has the authority to decide in the event of dispute in election of the President of India?

(A) Election Commissioner

(B) Prime Minister

(C) Lok Sabha

(D) Supreme Court

Answer: (D)

Exp: The Supreme court of India decides the disputes regarding the election of the President of India and the election of Vice President of India.

Q95. Who was the President of the ‘Independence for India league’ formed in 1928?

(A) Rash Behari Bose

(B) Mahatma Gandhi

(C) Srinivasa Iyengar

(D) Rajendra Prasad

Answer: (C)

Exp: Jawaharlal Nehru along with Srinivasa Iyengar and Subhash Chandra Bose founded the Independence for India League in the year 1928.

Q96. Who was the first Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?

(A) Krishnamurthy

(B) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan

(C) Violet Alwa

(D) Lal Bahadur Shastri

Answer: (B)

Exp: The vice president of India is the ex-officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan was the first Chairman of Rajya Sabha.

Q97. Which article of the Indian constitution says that Parliament comprises Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and President?

(A) Article 56

(B) Article 79

(C) Article 60

(D) Article 77

Answer: (B)

Exp: According to Article 79 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of President of India and the two Houses of Parliament known as Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and House of the People (Lok Sabha).

Q98. Right to Education became a fundamental right in?

(A) April 2010

(B) April 2004

(C) April 2008

(D) April 2012

Answer: (A)

Exp: India became one of 135 countries to make education a fundamental right for every child when the Act came into force on 1 April 2010.

Q99. What is the minimum duration of stay essential before a person can apply for Indian citizenship?

(A) 3 years

(B) 5 years

(C) 7 years

(D) 10 years

Answer: (C)

Exp: The minimum duration of stay in India before applying for Indian citizenship is 7 years.

Q100. Which of the following Amendment to the Constitution gave supremacy to Directive Principles of State Policy over Fundamental Rights?

(A) 44th Amendment

(B) 42nd Amendment

(C) 40th Amendment

(D) 25th Amendment

Answer: (B)

Exp: 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 gave precedence to Directive Principles of State Policy over Fundamental Rights.

Q101. Who was the first president of the first session of Asom Chatra Sanmilan?

(A) Lakshminath Bezbaruah

(B) Anandaram Dhekial Phukan

(C) Anandachandra Agarwala

(D) Chandrakumar Agarwala

Answer: (A)

Exp: Lakshminath Bezbarua presided over the first session of the Asom Chatra Sanmilan, an important student organisation in Assam.

Q102. Who among the following is not appointed by the President?

(A) Chief Justice and Judges of High Courts

(B) Governor of State

(C) Chief Justice and Judges of Supreme Court

(D) Vice President

Answer: (D)

Exp: The Vice President is not appointed by the President; the Vice President is elected by members of both Houses of Parliament under Article 66.

Q103. The vacancy of the office of the President must be filled within:

(A) 6 months

(B) 12 months

(C) 1 months

(D) 3 months

Answer: (A)

Exp: If the office of the President falls vacant by resignation, removal, death or otherwise, then election to fill the vacancy should be held within six months from the date of the occurrence of such a vacancy.

Q104. When was the Indian Constitution amended for the first time?

(A) 1949

(B) 1951

(C) 1952

(D) 1953

Answer: (B)

Exp: The Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951, enacted in 1951, made several changes to the Fundamental Rights provisions of the Indian constitution. It provided means to restrict freedom of speech and expression, validation of zamindari abolition laws, and clarified that the right to equality does not bar the enactment of laws which provide "special consideration" for weaker sections of society. It was moved by the then Prime Minister of India, Jawaharlal Nehru, on 10 May 1951 and enacted by Parliament on 18 June 1951.

Q105. Name the Constitutional Amendment Act that was passed to provide free and compulsory education of all children between 6 and 14 years of age:

(A) 86th Amendment Act.

(B) 84th Amendment Act.

(C) 83rd Amendment Act.

(D) 82nd Amendment Act.

Answer: (A)

Exp: The Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002 inserted Article 21-A in the Constitution of India to provide free and compulsory education of all children in the age group of six to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right.

Q106. What type of a right is “Right to vote in elections to Parliament”?

(A) Legal Right

(B) Moral Right

(C) Equitable Right

(D) Constitutional Right

Answer: (D)

Exp: ‘The right to Vote’ in India is a Constitutional right. The Right To Vote is guaranteed by the Constitution of India under Article 326 of the Indian Constitution. The 61 st constitutional amendment of 1988 reduced the voting age for elections to Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies from 21 to 18 years.

Q107. Which of the following factors takes part in atmospheric change?

(A) CO2, vapour

(B) Vapour, dust particles

(C) Storm

(D) Sun, storm, dust particles

Answer: (A)

Exp: Carbon dioxide and water vapour are important atmospheric constituents involved in greenhouse warming and atmospheric change. Water vapour is the most abundant greenhouse gas naturally present in the atmosphere.

Q108. From Constitution of which country, Indian Constitution borrowed the provision for ‘Procedure for amendment of the Constitution’?

(A) Britain

(B) Russia

(C) South Africa

(D) China

Answer: (C)

Exp: Indian Constitution borrowed the provision for ‘Procedure for amendment of the Constitution from the South Africa Consitution.

Q109. The word ‘integrity’ has been added to the Preamble as per which Constitutional Amendment?

(A) 43rd Constitutional Amendment

(B) 45th Constitutional Amendment

(C) 42nd Constitutional Amendment

(D) 46th Constitutional Amendment

Answer: (C)

Exp: Explanation: The Preamble declares that fraternity has to assure two things—the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the nation. The word ‘integrity’ has been added to the Preamble by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment (1976).

Q110. How many female members were part of the Constituent Assembly that framed the Constitution of India?

(A) 12

(B) 10

(C) 14

(D) 15

Answer: (D)

Exp: There were 15 women representatives in the Constituent Assembly, who contributed in the making of our constitution.

Q111. Which country the right to equality before law under Article 14 of the Indian Constitution has been taken from?

(A) USA

(B) Britain

(C) Russia

(D) Australia

Answer: (B)

Exp: The concept of 'equality before law' is of British origin while the concept of 'equal protection of Laws' has been taken from the American Constitution.

Q112. Which of the following Writs is said to be a guarantor of personal freedom?

(A) Mandamus

(B) Quo Warranto

(C) Habeas Corpus

(D) Certiorari

Answer: (C)

Exp: Habeas Corpus protects individuals against unlawful detention. In India, writ jurisdiction is exercised by the Supreme Court under Article 32 and High Courts under Article 226.

Q113. Which Schedule of the Constitution contains powers, authorities and responsibilities of Panchayati Raj?

(A) Eighth

(B) Ninth

(C) Eleventh

(D) Twelfth

Answer: (C)

Exp: The Eleventh Schedule contains 29 subjects related to Panchayats. It was added by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, which inserted Part IX.

Q114. 'Motion of Thanks' is given by the Indian Parliament to:

(A) Some MP does a very good work

(B) Some citizen does a very good work for the country

(C) Prime Minister does a very good work for the country

(D) President of India after he addresses both Houses of Parliament together

Answer: (D)

Exp: The Motion of Thanks follows the President’s Address under Article 87. It is discussed and voted upon in both Houses and serves as a broad review of the government's policies and programme.

Q115. Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the Constitution?

(A) Right to freedom of religion

(B) Right to property

(C) Right to equality

(D) Right to Constitutional remedies

Answer: (D)

Exp: Dr. B. R. Ambedkar called the Right to Constitutional Remedies the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution. It is guaranteed by Article 32, enabling individuals to approach the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights.

Q116. Where is the objective of 'social justice' articulated in the Constitution of India?

(A) Article 14

(B) Article 15

(C) Article 16

(D) The Preamble

Answer: (D)

Exp: The Preamble promises social, economic and political justice. These objectives are implemented through Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles, including equality provisions and welfare-oriented policies.

Q117. Which innovative discussion process was introduced by the Indian Parliament to world parliamentary systems?

(A) Question Hour

(B) Zero hour

(C) Resolutions

(D) Presidential Speech

Answer: (B)

Exp: Zero Hour is regarded as an Indian parliamentary innovation. It developed in the early 1960s and allows members to raise urgent public matters without the formal structure of Question Hour. It is not expressly mentioned in the Constitution.

Q118. Which Article says no child below 14 years shall be employed in a factory, mine or hazardous employment?

(A) Article 24

(B) Article 45

(C) Article 330

(D) Article 368

Answer: (A)

Exp: Article 24 prohibits employment of children below 14 years in factories, mines or hazardous employment. It is a Fundamental Right under the Right against Exploitation in Part III.

Q119. The Election Commission of India is a:

(A) One-member Commission

(B) Three-member Commission

(C) Five-member Commission

(D) Seven-member Commission

Answer: (B)

Exp: The Election Commission is a constitutional body under Article 324. It consists of the Chief Election Commissioner and such number of Election Commissioners as the President may determine; it functions as a multi-member body.

Q120. Which Schedule of the Constitution lists the States and Union Territories of India?

(A) First Schedule

(B) Second Schedule

(C) Third Schedule

(D) Fourth Schedule

Answer: (A)

Exp: The First Schedule lists the States and Union Territories of India and their territorial extent. The Seventh Schedule instead distributes legislative subjects between Union and States.

Q121. What does the Ashoka's wheel in the Indian National Flag represent?

(A) Wheel of peace

(B) Wheel of prosperity

(C) Wheel of the law of dharma

(D) Wheel of authority

Answer: (C)

Exp: The Ashoka Chakra represents the Dharma Chakra or wheel of law. It has 24 spokes and derives from the Lion Capital of Ashoka at Sarnath. The national flag was adopted on 22 July 1947.

Q122. After independence, the first State organized on the basis of language was:

(A) Tamil Nadu

(B) Kerala

(C) Karnataka

(D) Andhra

Answer: (D)

Exp: Andhra State was created on a linguistic basis in 1953 after the movement associated with Potti Sreeramulu. The States Reorganisation Act, 1956 subsequently reorganized many states on linguistic lines.

Q123. Rajendra Prasad was the permanent President of the Constituent Assembly. Who was its provisional President?

(A) H. N. Kunzru

(B) K. M. Munshi

(C) M. M. Malviya

(D) Sachchidananda Sinha

Answer: (D)

Exp: Sachchidananda Sinha served as the temporary chairman/provisional President at the first meeting of the Constituent Assembly on 9 December 1946. Rajendra Prasad was elected permanent President on 11 December 1946.

Q124. What was the time taken by the Constituent Assembly to frame the Constitution?

(A) 2 years 11 months and 18 days

(B) 3 years 7 months

(C) 1 year 11 months 20 days

(D) 2 years 10 months 20 days

Answer: (A)

Exp: The Constituent Assembly took 2 years, 11 months and 18 days. It adopted the Constitution on 26 November 1949, and it came into force on 26 January 1950.

Q125. Who was the first recipient of the Bharat Ratna Award?

(A) B. C. Roy

(B) S. Chandrasekhar

(C) C. V. Raman

(D) Govind Ballabh Pant

Answer: (C)

Exp: C. V. Raman was among the first three Bharat Ratna awardees in 1954, alongside C. Rajagopalachari and Dr. S. Radhakrishnan. The Bharat Ratna is India's highest civilian award.

Q126. Who was the First Speaker of independent India's Lok Sabha?

(A) Hukam Singh

(B) Babu Basanta Kumar Nath

(C) Narasimha Rao

(D) G. V. Mavalankar

Answer: (D)

Exp: G. V. Mavalankar was the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha, serving from 1952 to 1956. He had earlier served as Speaker of the Constituent Assembly (Legislative).

Q127. Which President consistently described Indian secularism as 'Sarva Dharma Samabhav'?

(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

(B) Dr. Zakir Hussain

(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(D) Giani Zail Singh

Answer: (A)

Exp: Dr. S. Radhakrishnan frequently explained Indian secularism through Sarva Dharma Samabhava, meaning equal respect for all religions. India's constitutional secularism is reflected in the Preamble and Fundamental Rights.

Q128. Who played an important role in bringing all the States in independent India into the country's unity?

(A) Sardar Patel

(B) Hume

(C) Subhash Chandra Bose

(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Answer: (A)

Exp: Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel played the central political role in the integration of princely states after independence, assisted by V. P. Menon. He served as India's first Deputy Prime Minister and Home Minister and is popularly called the Iron Man of India.

Q129. Who unfurls the National Flag in Republic Day ceremony in the state capitals?

(A) Chief Minister

(B) Governor

(C) Deputy Chief Minister

(D) Finance Minister

Answer: (B)

Exp: At state capitals, the Governor unfurls the national flag on Republic Day; at the national ceremony in New Delhi, the President unfurls the flag.

Q130. Which one of the following plants yield bio & diesel or bio fuels?

(A) Hevea brasiliensis

(B) Jatropha Curcas

(C) Juniperus Verginiana

(D) Parthenium orgenatum

Answer: (B)

Exp: Jatropha curcas seeds contain oil that can be processed into biodiesel, making the plant important in biofuel studies.

Q131. The Planning Commission of India was, established in the year:

(A) 1947

(B) 1949

(C) 1950

(D) 1952

Answer: (C)

Exp: 1950 saw the creation of the Planning Commission, chaired by the Prime Minister. It was replaced by NITI Aayog in 2015.

Q132. Reserve Bank of India was nationalized in the year:

(A) 1935

(B) 1948

(C) 1949

(D) 1951

Answer: (C)

Exp: 1935 was the establishment year of RBI; it became state-owned on 1 January 1949 under the RBI (Transfer to Public Ownership) Act, 1948.

Q133. The Indian flag is rectangular. The ratio of length and breadth is:

(A) 2 :1

(B) 3 : 2

(C) 4 : 3

(D) 5 : 3

Answer: (B)

Exp: The Indian national flag has a length-to-height ratio of 3:2. The Ashoka Chakra has 24 spokes.

Q134. The President of USA is elected after every:

(A) 3 years

(B) 4 years

(C) 5 years

(D) 6 years

Answer: (B)

Exp: The U.S. President is elected for a four-year term; the 22nd Amendment limits a person to two elected terms.

Q135. The maximum age prescribed for election as President is:

(A) 58 years

(B) 60 years

(C) 62 years

(D) No such limit

Answer: (D)

Exp: For election as President, the Constitution prescribes a minimum age of 35 years but no maximum age; this qualification is in Article 58.

Q136. Which is at the apex of the three-tier system of Panchayati Raj?

(A) Gram Sabha

(B) Gram Panchayat

(C) Zila Parishad

(D) Panchayat Samiti

Answer: (C)

Exp: Part IX and the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 provide the constitutional framework for Panchayati Raj; the Zila Parishad is the district-level tier.

Q137. How many ‘Gun Salutes’ are presented to the President on Republic Day?

(A) 25 gun salutes

(B) 21 gun salutes

(C) 15 gun salutes

(D) 10 gun salutes

Answer: (B)

Exp: The ceremonial 21-gun salute is used on major state occasions, including Republic Day and the swearing-in of the President.

Q138. Which historical monument was built to commemorate the visit of King George V and Queen Mary to Bombay?

(A) India Gate

(B) Churchgate

(C) Arc of Victory

(D) Gateway of India

Answer: (D)

Exp: Gateway of India in Mumbai commemorates the 1911 visit of King George V and Queen Mary; the foundation stone was laid in 1913 and the monument completed in 1924.

Q139. "Panchayati Raj' was first introduced in India in October 1959 in which one of the following States?

(A) Rajasthan

(B) Tamil Nadu

(C) Kerala

(D) Karnataka

Answer: (A)

Exp: 2 October 1959 marked the launch of Panchayati Raj at Nagaur, Rajasthan.

Q140. When was BTAD formed?

(A) 2003

(B) 1978

(C) 1999

(D) 2000

Answer: (A)

Exp: BTAD was created in 2003 under the Bodo Accord framework; it later became the Bodoland Territorial Area Districts under subsequent arrangements.

Q141. Megasthenes was the Ambassador of:

(A) The Persians

(B) Seleucus Nicator

(C) Alexander

(D) Darius

Answer: (B)

Exp: Megasthenes served as ambassador of Seleucus I Nicator to the court of Chandragupta Maurya and wrote the lost work Indica.

Q142. Where is Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research located?

(A) Trombay

(B) Kalpakkam

(C) Thrapore

(D) Jaduguda

Answer: (B)

Exp: IGCAR is located at Kalpakkam, Tamil Nadu and focuses on fast-breeder reactor technology and related nuclear research.

Q143. The President of India enjoys emergency powers of:

(A) Four types

(B) Two types

(C) Five types

(D) Three types

Answer: (D)

Exp: The three constitutional emergencies are National Emergency under Article 352, President’s Rule under Article 356, and Financial Emergency under Article 360.

Q144. Who first deciphered the Ashokan inscriptions?

(A) James Princep

(B) James williams

(C) John Munro

(D) None of these

Answer: (A)

Exp: James Prinsep deciphered the Brahmi script used in Ashokan inscriptions in the 1830s, enabling major advances in Mauryan history.

Q145. Which Article is cultural and educational rights?

(A) Article 25 and 33 of the constitution of India

(B) Article 29 and 30 of the constitution of India

(C) Article 27 of the constitution of India

(D) Article 28 of the constitution of India

Answer: (B)

Exp: The cultural and educational rights are protected by Articles 29 and 30, located in Part III of the Constitution.

Q146. Full form of TDS is:

(A) Tax deduction from salary

(B) Tax deduction system

(C) Tax deduction at source

(D) None of the above

Answer: (C)

Exp: TDS means Tax Deducted at Source and is governed mainly by provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

Q147. Who presented the Assam Official Language Bill in Assam Assembly to make Assamese as the sole official language of Assam?

(A) Bimala Prasad Chaliha

(B) Gopinath Bordoloi

(C) Bishnuram Medhi

(D) Tarun Gogoi

Answer: (A)

Exp: Bimala Prasad Chaliha was Chief Minister of Assam when the Assam Official Language Bill was presented; the Assam Official Language Act was enacted in 1960.

Q148. Which of the following non-members of Parliament has the right to address it?

(A) Attorney-General of India

(B) Solicitor- General of India

(C) Chief Justice of India

(D) Chief Election Commissioner

Answer: (A)

Exp: Attorney-General of India is the Union Government’s highest law officer. Under Article 76, the Attorney-General has the right to participate in proceedings of either House and its committees, but cannot vote because he is not a Member of Parliament.

Q149. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour comes under which of the following fundamental rights?

(A) Right to freedom

(B) Right against exploitation

(C) Right to education and culture

(D) Right to constitutional remedies

Answer: (B)

Exp: Articles 23–24 constitute the Right against Exploitation. Article 23 prohibits trafficking in human beings and forced labour, while Article 24 prohibits child labour in factories, mines and other hazardous employment.

Q150. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides free and compulsory education of all children in the age group of six to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right?

(A) Article 45

(B) Article 19

(C) Article 21

(D) Article 21 (A)

Answer: (D)

Exp: Free and compulsory education for children aged 6–14 years is a Fundamental Right under Article 21A. It was inserted by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002.

Q151. Which of the following take part in the election of the President?

(A) Members of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha

(B) Members of the Lok Sabha

(C) Members of the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Vidhan Sabha

(D) Members of the Rajya Sabha and the Vidhan Sabha

Answer: (C)

Exp: The President of India is elected by an Electoral College consisting of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of State Legislative Assemblies. Nominated members do not participate in this election. The framework is provided under Article 54.

Q152. The first sitting of Constituent Assembly was held on:

(A) 9th December, 1947

(B) 9th December, 1946

(C) 26th January, 1947

(D) 26th January, 1946

Answer: (B)

Exp: The Constituent Assembly held its first meeting on 9 December 1946 in New Delhi. Sachchidananda Sinha served as the temporary chairman, while Rajendra Prasad later became the permanent President.

Q153. Who among the following was the Constitutional adviser to the Constituent Assembly of India?

(A) M.C. Setalvad

(B) K.M. Munshi

(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru

(D) B.N. Rau

Answer: (D)

Exp: B. N. Rau served as the Constitutional Adviser to the Constituent Assembly. He prepared an important initial draft and studied constitutional systems of several countries during the Constitution-making process.

Q154. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha?

(A) President

(B) Vice-President

(C) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs

(D) Leader of Opposition

Answer: (B)

Exp: The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha under Article 64. The Chairman presides over the Council of States but is not a member of the Rajya Sabha.

Q155. Who among the following is known as the Father of the Indian Constitution?

(A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(B) Mahatma Gandhi

(C) Jawaharlal Nehru

(D) Vallabhbhai PateI

Answer: (A)

Exp: Dr. B. R. Ambedkar, Chairman of the Drafting Committee, is widely called the Father of the Indian Constitution in popular exam terminology. He played a central role in drafting and finalizing the constitutional text.

Q156. Which of the following Chief Justices of India has acted as President of India?

(A) M. Hidayatullah

(B) P.B. Gajendra Gadkar

(C) P.N. Bhagwati

(D) All of the above

Answer: (A)

Exp: Justice M. Hidayatullah, then Chief Justice of India, served as Acting President in 1969 after President Zakir Husain’s death and Vice-President V. V. Giri’s resignation to contest the presidential election.

Q157. Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/ reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)? 1. Preamble 2. Directive Principles of State Policy 3. Fundamental Duties Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (D)

Exp: The Preamble, Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties reflect values that are also found in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, adopted by the UN in 1948.

Q158. Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?

(A) Third Schedule

(B) Fifth Schedule

(C) Ninth Schedule

(D) Twelfth Schedule

Answer: (B)

Exp: The Fifth Schedule deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in specified states. It provides safeguards relating to tribal land and governance.

Q159. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its:

(A) advisory jurisdiction

(B) appellate jurisdiction

(C) original jurisdiction

(D) writ jurisdiction

Answer: (C)

Exp: Disputes between the Government of India and one or more States fall under the Supreme Court’s original jurisdiction under Article 131. The Court hears such disputes directly rather than on appeal.

Q160. ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the Constitution of India?

(A) Article 15

(B) Article 19

(C) Article 21

(D) Article 29

Answer: (C)

Exp: Article 21 has been interpreted by the Supreme Court to include the Right to Privacy as part of the right to life and personal liberty. The landmark nine-judge bench judgment in 2017 affirmed privacy as a fundamental right.

Q161. At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?

(A) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

(B) Ministry of Panchayati Raj

(C) Ministry of Rural Development

(D) Ministry of Tribal Affairs

Answer: (D)

Exp: The Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the nodal ministry for implementation of the Forest Rights Act, 2006. The Act recognizes forest rights of Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers subject to its provisions.

Q162. The term 'equal pay for equal work' is a:

(A) Directive Principle of State Policy

(B) Statutory provisions in Labour Law

(C) Fundamental Rights.

(D) Matter of State to pass Bill.

Answer: (A)

Exp: The principle of equal pay for equal work is contained in Article 39(d) as a Directive Principle of State Policy. It seeks equal remuneration for men and women performing equivalent work.

Q163. By which Amendment were ‘Fundamental Duties’ added to the Constitution?

(A) 40th Amendment

(B) 42nd Amendment

(C) 44th Amendment

(D) 45th Amendment

Answer: (B)

Exp: The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 added Fundamental Duties to the Constitution. They are contained in Part IVA, Article 51A.

Q164. No money bill can be introduced in the Lok Sabha without the prior approval of the:

(A) Vice-President

(B) President

(C) Prime Minister

(D) Finance Minister

Answer: (B)

Exp: A Money Bill can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only on the President’s recommendation under Article 117. It cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha.

Q165. Who was the first Assamese to become the Justice of Supreme Court of India?

(A) Ranjan Gogoi

(B) Haliram Deka

(C) Parvati Kumar Goswami

(D) None of these

Answer: (C)

Exp: Parvati Kumar Goswami was the first Assamese to become a Justice of the Supreme Court of India. Ranjan Gogoi later became the first Chief Justice of India from Assam and the Northeast.

Q166. Directive principle of State policy (DPSP) in the Indian constitution have been borrowed from which country?

(A) Britain

(B) USA

(C) Ireland

(D) Russia

Answer: (C)

Exp: The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) were borrowed from the Irish Constitution. They are contained in Part IV (Articles 36–51) and guide the State in establishing social and economic justice.

Q167. Which of the following is a source of Income of the Gram Panchayats?

(A) Duties

(B) Income Tax

(C) Sales tax

(D) Professional tax

Answer: (A)

Exp: A Gram Panchayat can receive local revenues such as duties and fees assigned under state law. Income tax and most major indirect taxes are Union/State sources, not ordinary Gram Panchayat revenues.

Q168. How many types of writ are there in the Indian Constitution?

(A) 4

(B) 5

(C) 6

(D) 7

Answer: (B)

Exp: The Indian Constitution provides five writs: Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari and Quo Warranto. The Supreme Court issues them under Article 32 and High Courts under Article 226.

Q169. The constitution of India was adopted by?

(A) Constituent Assembly

(B) British government

(C) Supreme court

(D) Parliament

Answer: (A)

Exp: The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26 November 1949 and came into force on 26 January 1950.

Q170. Which Article of the constitution deals with formation of New States?

(A) Article 2

(B) Article 3

(C) Article 4

(D) Article 5

Answer: (B)

Exp: Article 3 empowers Parliament to form new states and alter the areas, boundaries or names of existing states. The President refers such a Bill to the concerned state legislature for its views.

Q171. The definition of ‘Money bills’ is given in which article of the constitution of India?

(A) Article 88

(B) Article 93

(C) Article 110

(D) Article 112

Answer: (C)

Exp: The definition and constitutional conditions of a Money Bill are specified in Article 110. It deals only with matters such as taxation, borrowing and appropriation of money from the Consolidated Fund.

Q172. Which Article is related to Election commission of India?

(A) Article 312

(B) Article 320

(C) Article 324

(D) Article 332

Answer: (C)

Exp: The Election Commission of India is established under Article 324. It supervises elections to Parliament, state legislatures, and the offices of President and Vice-President.

Q173. The constitution of India was framed by?

(A) Planning commission

(B) Constituent Assembly

(C) Working committee

(D) President

Answer: (B)

Exp: The Constitution was framed by the Constituent Assembly, which first met on 9 December 1946. The Assembly adopted the Constitution on 26 November 1949.

Q174. Indian constitution was amended for the first time in the year?

(A) 1950

(B) 1951

(C) 1953

(D) 1955

Answer: (B)

Exp: The Constitution was first amended in 1951 through the Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951. It addressed issues including land reform and reasonable restrictions on certain Fundamental Rights.

Q175. Who was the first speaker of Lok sabha?

(A) Rajgopal Yadav

(B) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan

(C) G.V Mavalankar

(D) Dr. P .V Cherian

Answer: (C)

Exp: G. V. Mavalankar was the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha. He became Speaker of the first Lok Sabha in 1952.

Q176. The First Country to make constitution is?

(A) India

(B) Ireland

(C) South Africa

(D) USA

Answer: (D)

Exp: Among the options, the United States has the oldest written national Constitution still in force, adopted in 1787. It came into effect in 1789.

Q177. Which Schedule in the Indian Constitution specifies the powers, authority and responsible of Panchayats?

(A) Fouth schedule

(B) Sixth schedule

(C) Seventh schedule

(D) Eleventh schedule

Answer: (D)

Exp: The powers and responsibilities of Panchayats are distributed through the Eleventh Schedule, added by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992. It contains 29 subjects.

Q178. The Supreme court of india has-

(A) Original Jurisdiction

(B) Consulative jurisdiction

(C) Appellate and conuslative jurisdiction

(D) Original, Apellate and Conuslative Jurisdiction

Answer: (D)

Exp: The Supreme Court has original, appellate and advisory jurisdictions. Its original jurisdiction includes certain Centre–State and inter-State disputes under Article 131.

Q179. How many times have the National Emergency been implemented in India?

(A) 2

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 5

Answer: (B)

Exp: India has proclaimed three National Emergencies: in 1962, 1971 and 1975. The constitutional basis is Article 352.

Q180. The Supreme Court of Calcutta was established by?

(A) Pits India act 1784

(B) Regulating act 1984

(C) Regulating act 1773

(D) Charter act 1813

Answer: (C)

Exp: The Supreme Court at Calcutta was established under the Regulating Act of 1773. The Supreme Court began functioning in 1774 at Fort William.

Q181. What is maximum allowed duration between the last session of the dissolved Lok Sabha and the recalling Lok Sabha?

(A) 2 months

(B) 3 months

(C) 6 months

(D) 1 year

Answer: (C)

Exp: The maximum constitutional period between two sessions of Parliament is six months. Under Article 85, the President summons Parliament so that the interval does not exceed six months.

Q182. In which list of the Indian constitution is the citizenship included?

(A) State list

(B) Union list

(C) Concurrent list

(D) None of these

Answer: (B)

Exp: Citizenship is a subject in the Union List of the Seventh Schedule. Parliament therefore has legislative competence over citizenship under List I.

Q183. Which group of the following articles of Indian constitution contains Directive principles of state policy (DPSP) ?

(A) 36-51

(B) 28-48

(C) 42-56

(D) 30-47

Answer: (A)

Exp: The Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in Articles 36–51 of Part IV of the Constitution.

Q184. Members of Election commission are appointed by?

(A) Prime minister of India

(B) President of India

(C) Elected by the people

(D) Chief justice of India

Answer: (B)

Exp: The members of the Election Commission of India are appointed by the President under Article 324, subject to the constitutional framework and applicable law.

Q185. Which of the following committee suggested incorporating fundamental duties in the constitution?

(A) Malhotra committee

(B) Raghavan committee

(C) Narashiman committee

(D) Swaran Singh committee

Answer: (D)

Exp: The Swaran Singh Committee recommended inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the Constitution. The recommendations led to their insertion by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 as Part IVA.

Q186. National Emergency is declared under which of the following articles?

(A) Article 348

(B) Article 352

(C) Article 358

(D) Article 362

Answer: (B)

Exp: A National Emergency is proclaimed under Article 352 on grounds of war, external aggression or armed rebellion. The 44th Amendment replaced the earlier expression “internal disturbance” with armed rebellion.

Q187. The governor of the state can be removed by which of the following ?

(A) President

(B) Chief minister

(C) Prime minister

(D) All of these

Answer: (D)

Exp: A State Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President under Article 156; therefore the President can remove the Governor before completion of the normal five-year term.

Q188. National emergency proclamation is issued in case of?

(A) Armed rebellion

(B) External aggression

(C) War

(D) All of these

Answer: (D)

Exp: Article 352 permits National Emergency in case of war, external aggression or armed rebellion. Thus all three situations listed in the question are constitutional grounds.

Q189. Who was the first Chief justice in supreme court from North Eastern region?

(A) Parbati kumar goswami

(B) Haliram deka

(C) Mahananda Das

(D) Krishnakanta Handique

Answer: (A)

Exp: Justice Parbati Kumar Goswami was the first Chief Justice of a Supreme Court from the Northeast according to the source key. He was associated with the judicial history of Assam and the Gauhati High Court.

Q190. In real sense the Governor of the state is appointed by the president on the advice of the following?

(A) Prime minister

(B) Chief minister

(C) Vice president

(D) Chief justice

Answer: (A)

Exp: The Governor of a State is formally appointed by the President of India; the appointment is made on the Union executive’s advice, with the Prime Minister playing the key role in that advice.

Q191. The fundamental duties were included in the constitution of India by which of the following Amendment Act?

(A) 40th Amendment Act

(B) 42th Amendment Act

(C) 44th Amendment Act

(D) 45th Amendment Act

Answer: (B)

Exp: Fundamental Duties were inserted by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. They are contained in Part IVA, Article 51A.

Q192. Which Article of the Indian constitution abolishes Untouchability?

(A) Article 18

(B) Article 15

(C) Article 17

(D) Article 15

Answer: (A)

Exp: Untouchability is abolished by Article 17 of the Constitution. The provision is absolute and forms part of the Fundamental Rights in Part III.

Q193. Who of the following can participate in the proceedings of both the houses of Parliament?

(A) Vice president

(B) President

(C) Prime minister

(D) Attorney General

Answer: (D)

Exp: The Attorney-General of India may participate in the proceedings of both Houses of Parliament, although he is not a member and has no right to vote. This is provided by Article 88.

Q194. Who is the writer of the Sahitya Academy award winning book “ Deu-Langkhui

(A) Dr. Mamoni Roisom goswami

(B) Rita choudhury

(C) Jahnu Barua

(D) Maini Mahanta

Answer: (B)

Exp: Rita Chowdhury wrote the award-winning novel Deu-Langkhui, which deals with the historical experience of the Tiwa community and won the Sahitya Akademi Award.

Q195. Financial emergency is imposed under article?

(A) Article 352

(B) Article 356

(C) Article 360

(D) Article 364

Answer: (C)

Exp: Financial Emergency is provided under Article 360. It has never been proclaimed in India since the Constitution came into force.

Q196. First Chief Justice of India was?

(A) Justice M.C Mahajan

(B) Justice B.K Mukherjee

(C) Justice Hiralal J. Kanida

(D) Justice B.P Sinha

Answer: (C)

Exp: Justice Hiralal J. Kania was the first Chief Justice of India. He served from 1950 to 1951.

Q197. The chief justice of High court is appointed by the?

(A) President of India

(B) Governor of state

(C) Chief justice of supreme court

(D) Prime minister

Answer: (A)

Exp: A High Court Chief Justice is appointed by the President of India under Article 217, after the constitutionally prescribed consultation process.

Q198. Which of the following provision needs a special majority in Parliament?

(A) Change in fundamental rights

(B) Creation of new states

(C) Abolition of legaslative council in state

(D) Rules and procedures in parliament

Answer: (C)

Exp: A constitutional provision involving a change to Fundamental Rights generally requires the special majority procedure of Article 368. Creation of states and similar matters follow different constitutional procedures.

Q199. The constitution of India proclaims that India is?

(A) A Theocratic state

(B) A secular state

(C) A hindu state

(D) A Religeous state

Answer: (B)

Exp: The Preamble declares India to be a secular state, meaning the state does not establish an official religion and guarantees freedom of conscience and religion.

Q200. Which does not participate in the proceedings impeachment of President?

(A) Lok Sabha

(B) Rajya Sabha

(C) State legislative assembly

(D) State legislative council

Answer: (C)

Exp: State legislatures do not participate in impeachment of the President. Under Article 61, impeachment is initiated and investigated by either House of Parliament.

Q201. Who was the first Interim president of Constituent Assembly?

(A) Dr. Rajendra prasad

(B) Jawaharlal Nehru

(C) Lal bahadur shastri

(D) Sardar patel

Answer: (D)

Exp: The first interim chairman/president of the Constituent Assembly was Dr Sachchidananda Sinha; the elected permanent President was Dr Rajendra Prasad. The Assembly first met on 9 December 1946.

Q202. If the president wants to resign, to whom does he submit his resignation later?

(A) Prime minister

(B) CJI

(C) Vice president

(D) Speaker of loksabha

Answer: (C)

Exp: The President submits a resignation to the Vice-President under Article 56(1)(a). The Vice-President then informs the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

Q203. President’s power to grant pardon is defined under which article of the constitution?

(A) Article 72

(B) Article 73

(C) Article 74

(D) Article 75

Answer: (A)

Exp: The President’s pardoning power is provided by Article 72. It covers pardons, reprieves, respites, remissions and commutations in specified cases including court-martial and Union-law offences.

Q204. Who among the following appoints India’s chief election commissioner?

(A) Chief justice of India

(B) President

(C) Vice president

(D) Prime minister

Answer: (B)

Exp: The President of India appoints the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners under Article 324.

Q205. Which of the following Article of the constitution of India related to the system of election of president?

(A) Article 55

(B) Article 61

(C) Article 65

(D) Article 70

Answer: (B)

Exp: The election of the President is governed by Article 55, which provides for proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote and a secret ballot.

Q206. The biography “Smritir Tirtha” is written on the life of?

(A) Amulya barua

(B) Chandradhar barua

(C) Chandra kumar agarwala

(D) Nabin chandra bordoloi

Answer: (A)

Exp: The source identifies Nabin Chandra Bordoloi as the subject of “Smritir Tirtha.” The work belongs to the Assamese biographical/literary tradition.

Q207. “Chakri feti” buranji was written by?

(A) Numoli Borgohain

(B) Chandrakanta baruah

(C) Nalinibala devi

(D) Rajani kanta bordoloi

Answer: (A)

Exp: The source identifies Numoli Borgohain as the writer of the Chakri Feti Buranji. Buranjis are important historical chronicles of the Ahom period.

Q208. Who was the first governor general of India?

(A) Lord Canning

(B) Lord william Bentick

(C) Lord Rippon

(D) Lord Cornwalis

Answer: (B)

Exp: The first Governor-General of India under the Government of India Act, 1858 was Lord Canning, who had earlier served as Governor-General of India.

Q209. Who was the first female governor of India?

(A) Anni Besant

(B) Sarojini Naidu

(C) Meera kumari

(D) Sucheta kripalani

Answer: (B)

Exp: Sarojini Naidu became India’s first woman Governor, serving as Governor of the United Provinces from 1947 until 1949.

Q210. Which Article is associated with “Loksabha”?

(A) Article 79

(B) Article 80

(C) Article 81

(D) Article 82

Answer: (C)

Exp: The composition of the Lok Sabha is dealt with principally in Article 81, which provides for representation of states and Union territories in the House of the People.

Q211. “Maldives” parliament is known as?

(A) Shora

(B) Zeal

(C) Super house

(D) Majlis

Answer: (C)

Exp: The Parliament of the Maldives is called the People’s Majlis. It is the country’s unicameral legislative body.

Q212. Who described constitution of India as Quasi-federal?

(A) Granville Austin

(B) Lone jennings

(C) Morris jones

(D) K.C Wheare

Answer: (A)

Exp: K. C. Wheare described India as quasi-federal, reflecting a federal structure with a strong central government. This is a classic comparative-constitutional description.

Q213. Who is the writer of “The struggle of my Life”?

(A) Barrack obama

(B) Nelson Mandela

(C) Vladimir putin

(D) Mahatma gandhi

Answer: (B)

Exp: The source key associates The Struggle of My Life with Nelson Mandela. Mandela’s life story is closely linked with the anti-apartheid struggle in South Africa.

Q214. There are how many types of writs?

(A) 4

(B) 5

(C) 6

(D) 7

Answer: (D)

Exp: The Constitution provides five writs: habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo warranto. The Supreme Court issues them under Article 32; High Courts under Article 226.

Q215. What is minimum Age to become a member of Rajya Sabha?

(A) 30 years

(B) 25 years

(C) 35 years

(D) 40 years

Answer: (D)

Exp: The minimum age for membership of the Rajya Sabha is 30 years, under Article 84. A Lok Sabha member must be at least 25.

Q216. The President may resign from his office by writing under his hand addressed to the?

(A) Vice president

(B) Prime minister

(C) Chief justice of India

(D) Speaker of Loksabha

Answer: (B)

Exp: Under Article 56, the President may resign by writing addressed to the Vice-President of India.

Q217. The member of “Rajyasabha” give their resignation to whom?

(A) President

(B) Vice President

(C) Chief justice of India

(D) Prime minister

Answer: (B)

Exp: Rajya Sabha members submit resignation to the Vice-President, who is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. This differs from Lok Sabha members, who resign to the Speaker.

Q218. “Right to privacy” comes under which article?

(A) Article 18

(B) Article 19

(C) Article 20

(D) Article 21

Answer: (D)

Exp: The Supreme Court has read the Right to Privacy into Article 21 as part of life and personal liberty, especially after the 2017 Puttaswamy judgment.

Q219. How many maximum members are elected from Assam for Rajya sabha?

(A) 5

(B) 6

(C) 7

(D) 8

Answer: (C)

Exp: Assam elects 7 Rajya Sabha members. The constitutional allocation of seats to states is provided through the Fourth Schedule.

Q220. Who is the guardian of “Fundamental rights”

(A) Ruiling party

(B) Parliament

(C) Judiciary

(D) All of these

Answer: (C)

Exp: The Judiciary acts as the guardian of Fundamental Rights through judicial review and constitutional remedies, especially under Article 32.

Q221. Which article Define “Municipalities”?

(A) 243 Q

(B) 243 P

(C) 243 T

(D) 243 U

Answer: (B)

Exp: Article 243P defines key terms for Part IX-A dealing with municipalities; the constitutional framework for municipalities is mainly contained in Part IX-A, Articles 243P–243ZG.

Q222. What is Article 110?

(A) Budget

(B) Money bill

(C) Finance bill

(D) None of these

Answer: (B)

Exp: Article 110 defines a Money Bill. It specifies matters such as taxation, government borrowing and appropriation of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India.

Q223. The word “Secular” was added by which Amendment Act?

(A) 37th amendment act

(B) 42nd amendment act

(C) 44th amendment act

(D) 46th amendment act

Answer: (B)

Exp: The words “Socialist”, “Secular” and “Integrity” were inserted into the Preamble by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.

Q224. The Election Commission of India is not concerned with the elections of/to the?

(A) President

(B) Vice president

(C) Panchayats and Municipalties in the state

(D) All of the above

Answer: (C)

Exp: The Election Commission of India conducts elections to Parliament, the Presidency, Vice-Presidency and state legislatures, but Panchayat and Municipal elections are conducted by State Election Commissions under Article 243K and Article 243ZA.

Q225. According to which article of constitution, Hindi is the official language of India?

(A) Article 295

(B) Article 182

(C) Article 343

(D) Article 282

Answer: (C)

Exp: Article 343 provides that the official language of the Union is Hindi in Devanagari script, with English continuing for specified official purposes under law.

Q226. Which of the following Articles of the constitution of India is related to the Uniform Civil code?

(A) Article 44

(B) Article 45

(C) Article 46

(D) Article 47

Answer: (A)

Exp: The Uniform Civil Code is mentioned in Article 44, under the Directive Principles of State Policy.

Q227. What is the full form of PIL?

(A) Personal Interest Litigation

(B) Public Interest Litigation

(C) People Interest Litigation

(D) All of these

Answer: (B)

Exp: PIL stands for Public Interest Litigation, a mechanism through which courts can hear matters affecting public or collective interests.

Q228. Which of the following act made Assam an Autonomous province?

(A) Charter act 1853

(B) Indian council act 1861

(C) Rowlatt act 1919

(D) GOI Act 1935

Answer: (D)

Exp: The Government of India Act, 1935 provided for provincial autonomy and is associated with the constitutional status of Assam as a separate province.

Q229. The phrase “Equality before Law” used in Article-14 of Indian Constitution has been borrowed from?

(A) USA

(B) Germany

(C) Japan

(D) Britain

Answer: (D)

Exp: The expression “equality before law” in Article 14 reflects the British constitutional tradition, while “equal protection of laws” is associated with the US Constitution.

Q230. A federal government is in the shape of?

(A) Command by the centre

(B) Appeal from the states

(C) Agreement between the Centre and States

(D) Single party rule

Answer: (C)

Exp: A federal government is based on an agreement/constitutional division of powers between the Centre and States. India’s federal structure is laid out through the Constitution and the Seventh Schedule.

Q231. Which one of the following article deals with the appointment of the Prime Minister and other ministers?

(A) Article 73

(B) Article 74

(C) Article 75

(D) Article 76

Answer: (C)

Exp: Article 75 deals with the appointment and other constitutional provisions relating to the Prime Minister and Union ministers.

Q232. Which of the following Article deals with the tenure of “President”?

(A) Article 53

(B) Article 59

(C) Article 56

(D) Article 55

Answer: (C)

Exp: Article 56 specifies the term of office of the President as five years, subject to the constitutional provisions on resignation, removal and continuation until a successor enters office.

Q233. Which of the following act made the governor of Bengal as the Governor General of India?

(A) The Charter act 1813

(B) Charter act 1793

(C) The Regulating act 1773

(D) Pitt’s India act 1784

Answer: (C)

Exp: The Regulating Act, 1773 made the Governor of Bengal the Governor-General of Bengal; the later Charter Act of 1833 made the office Governor-General of India.

Q234. Who appoints State Election Commissioner of India?

(A) President

(B) Chief Minister

(C) Prime Minister

(D) Governor

Answer: (D)

Exp: The Governor appoints the State Election Commissioner under Article 243K. The SEC supervises Panchayat elections in the state.

Q235. Which was the first state to introduced “NOTA” in elections?

(A) Uttar pradesh

(B) Maharashtra

(C) Chhatisgarh

(D) Gujarat

Answer: (C)

Exp: The source key identifies Chhattisgarh as the first state to introduce NOTA. India introduced NOTA nationally through the 2013 Supreme Court judgment in PUCL v. Union of India.

Q236. Who was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India?

(A) Sukumar Sen

(B) M.S Gill

(C) Sunil Arora

(D) T N Seshan

Answer: (A)

Exp: Sukumar Sen was India’s first Chief Election Commissioner. He served from 1950 to 1958 and supervised the first general elections of 1951–52.

Q237. What does the writ of “Mandamus” mean?

(A) To be certified

(B) We command

(C) You may have the body

(D) By what warrants

Answer: (B)

Exp: The writ of Mandamus literally means “We command.” It directs a public authority to perform a legal duty.

Q238. “Attorney General of India is appointed by?

(A) Prime Minister

(B) Chief justice of India

(C) President

(D) Vice President

Answer: (C)

Exp: The President of India appoints the Attorney General under Article 76. The Attorney General is the Union’s highest law officer.

Q239. Which of the following motions can not be used in the Rajya Sabha?

(A) Adjournment motion

(B) Closure motion

(C) No-Confidence motion

(D) Priviledge motion

Answer: (A)

Exp: The Adjournment Motion is a Lok Sabha device for raising a definite matter of urgent public importance and is not available in the Rajya Sabha in the same form.

Q240. Which of the following emergency has not been promulgated in India so far?

(A) President’s rule

(B) National Emergency

(C) Financial Emergency

(D) None of these

Answer: (C)

Exp: A Financial Emergency under Article 360 has never been proclaimed in India. National Emergency and President’s Rule have been used.

Q241. In India, first hour of every Parliamentary sitting is allotted for?

(A) Zero hour

(B) Half an hour

(C) Question hour

(D) None of these

Answer: (C)

Exp: The first hour of every parliamentary sitting is normally the Question Hour, when members ask ministers questions about government policy and administration.

Q242. By which Writ Judiciary ordered to do duty?

(A) Quo warranto

(B) Mandamas

(C) Prohibition

(D) Habeas corpus

Answer: (B)

Exp: Mandamas is the writ used to command a public authority to perform a legal duty. It is issued by High Courts under Article 226 and by the Supreme Court under Article 32.

Q243. The chief minister of a Union Territory where such a set up exists is appointed by the?

(A) President

(B) Majority party in legislature

(C) Lt. Governor

(D) Prime Minister

Answer: (C)

Exp: Lt. Governor appoints the Chief Minister in a Union Territory having the constitutional arrangement referred to in the question.

Q244. Which Article is related to “Impeachment of President”?

(A) Article 61

(B) Article 62

(C) Article 63

(D) Article 64

Answer: (A)

Exp: Presidential impeachment is governed by Article 61. The charge may be initiated by either House of Parliament and requires special majorities.

Q245. The Panchayati Raj system under Part IX of the constitution does not apply to the states of?

(A) Nagaland, Meghalaya, Tripura

(B) Sikkim, Tripura and Meghalaya

(C) Manipur, Sikkim, Tripura

(D) Nagaland, Meghalaya, Mizoram

Answer: (D)

Exp: The Panchayati Raj provisions in Part IX do not apply to the constitutionally excluded states listed under Article 243M, including Nagaland, Meghalaya and Mizoram.

Q246. “Article 143” is associated with whom?

(A) President

(B) Prime Minister

(C) Supreme Court

(D) Parliament

Answer: (A)

Exp: Article 143 gives the President power to refer questions of law or fact of public importance to the Supreme Court for its advisory opinion.

Q247. The term office duration of CAG of India is?

(A) 4 years

(B) 5 years

(C) 6 years

(D) 7 years

Answer: (C)

Exp: The CAG holds office for 6 years or until age 65, whichever is earlier, under Article 148.

Q248. “Ram Navami” was written by whom?

(A) Gunabhiram Baruah

(B) Banikanta Kakati

(C) Hem Saraswasti

(D) Navakanta baruah

Answer: (A)

Exp: Gunabhiram Baruah wrote “Ram Navami”, an important early work in modern Assamese drama.

Q249. According to Indian Constitution who has no any provision to impeachment?

(A) President

(B) Chief justice of India

(C) Vice President

(D) Governor

Answer: (D)

Exp: Governor has no constitutional impeachment procedure. The President is impeached under Article 61; judges have a separate removal procedure.

Q250. Which article of the constitution says that “Rajya Sabha” shall not be dissolute?

(A) Article 83

(B) Article 53

(C) Article 67

(D) Article 153

Answer: (A)

Exp: The correct answer is Article 83. This is the key factual association tested by the question and should be remembered with the subject named in the question.

Q251. The idea of residual powers in Indian constitution has been taken from the constitution of?

(A) Canada

(B) South Africa

(C) USA

(D) Japan

Answer: (A)

Exp: Canada is the constitutional model from which India borrowed the idea of residuary legislative powers being vested in the Union.

Q252. Which of the following fearures of Indian Constitution was taken from “Soviet Socialist Republic”?

(A) Fundamental rights

(B) Five year plans

(C) Preamble

(D) Concurrent list

Answer: (B)

Exp: Five year plans is the feature identified by the source as borrowed from the Soviet constitutional model. India’s Five-Year Plans were influenced by Soviet planning experience.

Q253. Which Article of the Indian constitution deals with the “Finance Commission?

(A) Article 272

(B) Article 276

(C) Article 280

(D) Article 284

Answer: (C)

Exp: Article 280 provides for the Finance Commission, normally constituted by the President every five years or earlier.

Q254. The book “Mereng” was written by?

(A) Rita Choudhury

(B) Leela Gogoi

(C) Nirupama Borgohain

(D) Anuradha Sarma pujari

Answer: (D)

Exp: Anuradha Sarma pujari wrote the Assamese novel “Mereng”.

Q255. The “Union and the Territories” are mentioned in which Article?

(A) Article 1

(B) Article 3

(C) Article 7

(D) Article 11

Answer: (A)

Exp: Article 1 declares India, that is Bharat, to be a Union of States and describes the territories of India.

Q256. Where did “Niti Ayog” established?

(A) 1st january 2015

(B) 1st January 2016

(C) 1st January 2017

(D) 1st Januray 2018 ANSWERS:- SET- 18 851) D 861) C 871) A 881) D 891) C 852) C 862) D 872) B 882) B 892) B 853) B 863) B 873) C 883) C 893) D 854) C 864) A 874) D 884) D 894) B 855) D 865) D 875) B 885) A 895) C 856) A 866) C 876) D 886) C 896) A 857) A 867) B 877) B 887) A 897) C 858) D 868) C 878) C 888) D 898) D 859) B 869) A 879) A 889) C 899) B 860) C 870) B 880) D 890) A 900) A

Answer: (A)

Exp: The correct answer is 1st january 2015. This is the key factual association tested by the question and should be remembered with the subject named in the question.

Q257. The power of judicial review in the Indian constitution and the provision of independence of judiciary is taken from which country?

(A) Australia

(B) Germany

(C) Japan

(D) USA

Answer: (D)

Exp: USA is the constitutional source identified for judicial review and judicial independence in India.

Q258. In the Indian Constitution, the Principle of Liberty is borrowed from which country?

(A) UK

(B) Japan

(C) France

(D) Germany

Answer: (C)

Exp: France is the country identified as the source of the liberty principle in the Indian constitutional borrowing list.

Q259. During the period of which Governor General/Viceroy was the Indian Civil Service introduced?

(A) Dalhousie

(B) Rippon

(C) Cornwallis

(D) Bentick

Answer: (C)

Exp: Cornwallis is associated with the organisation of the covenanted civil service under Cornwallis; the later Indian Civil Service evolved from this system.

Q260. Which of the following is not a “Fundamental Right”?

(A) Right to Property

(B) Right to Equality

(C) Right to Liberty

(D) Right against Exploitation

Answer: (A)

Exp: Right to Property is no longer a Fundamental Right. The Right to Property was removed from Part III by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978 and is now protected by Article 300A.

Q261. “Right to property” was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights during the rule of?

(A) Indira Gandhi government

(B) Vajpayee government

(C) Morarji Desai government

(D) Narashima Government

Answer: (C)

Exp: The Right to Property was removed from Fundamental Rights during the Morarji Desai government through the 44th Amendment Act, 1978. It became a constitutional legal right under Article 300A.

Q262. Nomonation of “Rajya Sabha” members by the President was taken from the constitution of?

(A) Ireland

(B) USA

(C) France

(D) South Africa

Answer: (A)

Exp: The correct answer is Ireland. This is the key factual association tested by the question and should be remembered with the subject named in the question.

Q263. Who is the chairman of “Niti Ayog”?

(A) Finance minister

(B) Prime minister

(C) President

(D) Vice President

Answer: (B)

Exp: The correct answer is Prime minister. This is the key factual association tested by the question and should be remembered with the subject named in the question.

Q264. India has adopted a federation of____?

(A) USA

(B) Canadian

(C) Australian

(D) South African

Answer: (B)

Exp: Canadian is the constitutional model from which India borrowed the federal framework. India combines federal features with a strong Union.

Q265. The famous “Moharathi” novel was written by?

(A) Chandra prasad Saikia

(B) Chandra dhar barua

(C) Padmanath gohain baruah

(D) None of these

Answer: (A)

Exp: Chandra prasad Saikia is the author identified by the source for the Assamese novel “Moharathi”.

Q266. Who was the only Indian to be elected as President of the United Nations General Assembly?

(A) Vijayalakhsmi Pandit

(B) V.K Krishna Menon

(C) Jawaharlal Nehru

(D) Rajeshwar Dayal

Answer: (A)

Exp: Vijayalakhsmi Pandit was the first and only Indian woman to serve as President of the UN General Assembly, in 1953–1954.

Q267. Who was the writer of the first modern play “Ram Navami”?

(A) Madhav Kandali

(B) Sankardeva

(C) Gunabhiram baruah

(D) Anandaram Baruah

Answer: (C)

Exp: The correct answer is Gunabhiram baruah. This is the key factual association tested by the question and should be remembered with the subject named in the question.

Q268. “Makam” novel was written by?

(A) Mamoni roysom goswami

(B) Rita Choudhury

(C) Hem Baruah

(D) Hem Saraswati

Answer: (B)

Exp: Rita Choudhury wrote the novel “Makam”, a notable Assamese literary work.

Q269. The subject of Sports comes under which list of Indian Constitution?

(A) Union list

(B) State list

(C) Residuary list

(D) Concurrent list

Answer: (B)

Exp: State list is the constitutional list identified by the source for sports. Legislative subjects are distributed under the Seventh Schedule.

Q270. Which Article of the constitution of India provides that each Indian state will have a Governor?

(A) Article 150

(B) Article 151

(C) Article 152

(D) Article 153

Answer: (D)

Exp: Article 153 provides that there shall be a Governor for each State, subject to the constitutional provision allowing one Governor to serve two or more States.

Q271. “Kalika Purana” was written in which century?

(A) 10th century

(B) 12th century

(C) 13th century

(D) 14th century

Answer: (A)

Exp: 10th century is the century identified by the source for the Kalika Purana, a Sanskrit text closely associated with the Shakta tradition of Kamarupa.

Q272. What does the writ “Haebus Corpus” mean?

(A) By what warrent

(B) We command

(C) You may have the body

(D) To be certified

Answer: (C)

Exp: You may have the body is the literal meaning of Habeas Corpus and refers to judicial protection against unlawful detention.

Q273. “The origin of species” book was written by?

(A) Charles Darwin

(B) Carlos Linneaus

(C) Erasmus Darwin

(D) William Paley

Answer: (A)

Exp: Charles Darwin wrote “On the Origin of Species”, published in 1859, presenting natural selection as a major mechanism of evolution.

Q274. Fundamental duties were incorpoated in Indian constitution in the year?

(A) 1947

(B) 1959

(C) 1976

(D) 1971

Answer: (C)

Exp: Fundamental Duties were incorporated by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 in Part IVA under Article 51A.

Q275. Who appoints the “Advocate General” of the states?

(A) Governor of the state

(B) President

(C) Chief minister

(D) Legislative assembly

Answer: (A)

Exp: The correct answer is Governor of the state. This is the key factual association tested by the question and should be remembered with the subject named in the question.

Q276. The “Sati pratha” was abolished in 1829 under the leadership of which Governor General of India?

(A) Lord Mountbatten

(B) Lord Curzon

(C) Lord Aukland

(D) Lord William Bentick

Answer: (D)

Exp: The correct answer is Lord William Bentick. This is the key factual association tested by the question and should be remembered with the subject named in the question.

Q277. In the context of Indian Parliament, what is a “Zero Hour”?

(A) Time in the last half of the parliamentary proceeding

(B) Time before Question Hour

(C) Time immediately after Question hour

(D) Time in the first half of the parliamentary proceeding

Answer: (C)

Exp: The correct answer is Time immediately after Question hour. This is the key factual association tested by the question and should be remembered with the subject named in the question.

Q278. Who is the writer of the book “India against Itself”?

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru

(B) Banikanta Kakoti

(C) Padmanth Gohain Baruah

(D) Sanjib Baruah

Answer: (D)

Exp: The correct answer is Sanjib Baruah. This is the key factual association tested by the question and should be remembered with the subject named in the question.

Q279. The process of “Impeachement of the President” of India can be initiated in?

(A) Rajya Sabha only

(B) Lok sabha only

(C) Either Houses of the Parliament

(D) State Assemblies

Answer: (C)

Exp: The correct answer is Either Houses of the Parliament. This is the key factual association tested by the question and should be remembered with the subject named in the question.

Q280. In Which language were the “Mughal Court Chronicals” written?

(A) Sanskrit

(B) Turkish

(C) Urdu

(D) Persian

Answer: (D)

Exp: Persian was the principal language of Mughal court chronicles such as Akbarnama, Ain-i-Akbari and Tuzuk-i-Jahangiri.

Q281. “Financial emergency” provisions of Indian constitution have been borrowed from?

(A) Canadian constitution

(B) American constitution

(C) Irish constitution

(D) German constitution

Answer: (D)

Exp: German constitution is the constitutional source identified by the question for India’s Financial Emergency provisions. India’s Constitution places the provision in Article 360.

Q282. What is the maximum tenure of “National Emergency”?

(A) One year

(B) Two Year

(C) Three year

(D) None of the above

Answer: (D)

Exp: There is no fixed absolute maximum tenure as long as Parliament repeatedly approves continuation every six months; hence the source answer is “none of the above”.

Q283. Which of the following is not a constitutional body?

(A) UPSC

(B) State PCS

(C) Finance commission

(D) NITI Ayog

Answer: (D)

Exp: The correct answer is NITI Ayog. This is the key factual association tested by the question and should be remembered with the subject named in the question.

Q284. The novel “Abhijatri” was written by which author?

(A) Arun Sarma

(B) Sneha Devi

(C) Nirupama Borgohain

(D) Chandra prasad saikia

Answer: (C)

Exp: The correct answer is Nirupama Borgohain. This is the key factual association tested by the question and should be remembered with the subject named in the question.

Q285. “Omar Tirtha” was written by?

(A) Nabakanta Baruah

(B) Debakanta baruah

(C) Jatindranath Duwara

(D) Hem Baruah

Answer: (C)

Exp: The correct answer is Jatindranath Duwara. This is the key factual association tested by the question and should be remembered with the subject named in the question.

Q286. Which one among the following was the first country to declare “Climate Emergency”?

(A) Sweden

(B) Canada

(C) USA

(D) UK

Answer: (D)

Exp: The correct answer is UK. This is the key factual association tested by the question and should be remembered with the subject named in the question.

Q287. Who was the first President of India to make use of “Pocket Veto”?

(A) Zakir Hussain

(B) Sanjeeva Reddy

(C) R. Venkatraman

(D) Gyani Zail Singh

Answer: (D)

Exp: The correct answer is Gyani Zail Singh. This is the key factual association tested by the question and should be remembered with the subject named in the question.

Q288. Which Article of Indian constitution provides for a Vice president of the country?

(A) Article 8

(B) Article 52

(C) Artcile 63

(D) Article 72

Answer: (C)

Exp: The correct answer is Artcile 63. This is the key factual association tested by the question and should be remembered with the subject named in the question.

Q289. Who among the following has right to address the Parliament?

(A) Attorney General of India

(B) Chief justice of India

(C) Chief election commissioner of India

(D) National security advisor

Answer: (A)

Exp: The correct answer is Attorney General of India. This is the key factual association tested by the question and should be remembered with the subject named in the question.

Q290. The novel “Iyaruingam” was written by?

(A) Lakhsminath Bezbaruah

(B) Raghunath choudhary

(C) Birendra Kumar Bhattacharya

(D) Saurabh kumar Chaliha

Answer: (C)

Exp: The correct answer is Birendra Kumar Bhattacharya. This is the key factual association tested by the question and should be remembered with the subject named in the question.

Q291. How many Articles were there in the Indian Constitution initially?

(A) 320

(B) 295

(C) 395

(D) 401

Answer: (C)

Exp: The correct answer is 395. This is the key factual association tested by the question and should be remembered with the subject named in the question.

Q292. Who was the first “Non-Political” president of India?

(A) Rajendra Prasad

(B) Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam

(C) V V Giri

(D) Pratibha Patil

Answer: (B)

Exp: The correct answer is Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam. This is the key factual association tested by the question and should be remembered with the subject named in the question.

Q293. No Money bill can be introduced in the Lok sabha without the prior approval of the ?

(A) Vice President

(B) President

(C) Prime minister

(D) Finance minister

Answer: (B)

Exp: President must give prior recommendation for introduction of a Money Bill. Under Article 110, a Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.

Q294. The concurrent list in the Indian Constitution is adopted from the Constitution of?

(A) USA

(B) Canada

(C) Germany

(D) Australia

Answer: (D)

Exp: Australia is the constitutional model from which India borrowed the Concurrent List. It allows both Union and State legislatures to make laws on listed subjects.

Q295. The book “poverty and Un-British rule in India” was written by?

(A) M.N Roy

(B) C. Gopalachari

(C) Dadabhai Narorji

(D) Gopal Krishna Gokhale

Answer: (C)

Exp: Dadabhai Narorji wrote “Poverty and Un-British Rule in India” in 1901, explaining the economic drain from India under colonial rule.

Q296. In which session of the Indian National Congress, the resolution on Fundamental Rights was passed?

(A) Surat Session ( 1907)

(B) Gaya session ( 1922)

(C) Lahore session (1929)

(D) Karachi session ( 1931)

Answer: (D)

Exp: The Karachi Session of the Indian National Congress in 1931 adopted the resolution on Fundamental Rights and the National Economic Programme; the session was presided over by Vallabhbhai Patel.

Q297. “Right to Education” has been passed under which Amendment Act?

(A) 86th Amendment Act

(B) 97th Amendment Act

(C) 42th Amendment Act

(D) 76th Amendment Act

Answer: (A)

Exp: The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 inserted Article 21A, making free and compulsory education for children aged 6–14 a Fundamental Right; the RTE Act followed in 2009.

Q298. The expenses of state public commission are charged from which of the following?

(A) Contigency fund of state

(B) Consolidated fund of state

(C) Consolidated fund of India

(D) Contigency fund of India

Answer: (B)

Exp: Expenses of a State Public Service Commission are charged on the Consolidated Fund of the State, protecting the commission from routine legislative voting on expenditure.

Q299. The union public service commission (UPSC) of India has been established under the Article

(A) Article 122

(B) Article 257

(C) Article 357

(D) Article 315

Answer: (D)

Exp: The UPSC is established under Article 315; Articles 315–323 deal with Public Service Commissions.

Q300. Which part of the Indian constitution deals with the Articles on “Elections”?

(A) Part XII

(B) Part XIV

(C) Part XV

(D) Part XVII

Answer: (C)

Exp: Elections are covered by Part XV of the Constitution, comprising Articles 324–329.

Q301. Who among the following was the chairman of Provincial constituion committee?

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru

(B) Dr. B R Ambedkar

(C) H.C Mukherjee

(D) Sardar Patel

Answer: (D)

Exp: The Provincial Constitution Committee of the Constituent Assembly was chaired by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.

Q302. According to the constituion of India which of the following is enforceable in the court?

(A) Directive principles

(B) Preamble

(C) Fundamental Duties

(D) Fundamental rights

Answer: (D)

Exp: Among the listed constitutional provisions, Fundamental Rights are enforceable by courts; they are contained in Part III under Articles 12–35.

Q303. Which constitutional amendment reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 years?

(A) 59th amendment

(B) 60th amendment

(C) 61st amendment

(D) 62nd amendment

Answer: (C)

Exp: The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988 reduced the voting age from 21 to 18 years; the change operates through Article 326.

Q304. The Anti-defection law is contained in which schedule of the Indian constitution?

(A) 7th

(B) 9th

(C) 10th

(D) 12th

Answer: (C)

Exp: The anti-defection provisions are in the 10th Schedule, inserted by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985.

Q305. The concept of Constitution first originated in?

(A) Switzerland

(B) Britain

(C) USA

(D) Japan

Answer: (B)

Exp: The modern written constitutional tradition is strongly associated with Britain; the British constitutional system developed through statutes, conventions and judicial precedents rather than a single codified document.

Q306. Which article lays down the procedure for the amendment of the Indian Constitution?

(A) Article 368

(B) Article 300

(C) Article 278

(D) Article 309

Answer: (A)

Exp: Constitutional amendment procedure is primarily laid down in Article 368; different amendment types have different parliamentary and, in some cases, state-ratification requirements.

Q307. Who was the first comptroller and auditor General of India?

(A) AK Chandra

(B) AK Roy

(C) S Ranganathan

(D) V Narahari Rao

Answer: (D)

Exp: V. Narahari Rao was the first Comptroller and Auditor General of India; the CAG is a constitutional authority under Article 148.

Q308. The vacancy of the president post of India must be filled up within the period of?

(A) One month

(B) Three month

(C) Six month

(D) One year

Answer: (C)

Exp: A vacancy in the office of President must be filled by an election within 6 months; this requirement is specified in Article 62(2).

Q309. Article 78 of the constitution of India lays down the duties of the?

(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha

(B) Chairman of Rajya sabha

(C) Comptroller and Auditor general of India

(D) Prime Minister

Answer: (D)

Exp: Article 78 specifies the duties of the Prime Minister toward the President, including communication of Council of Ministers’ decisions and legislative proposals.

Q310. In which year the first amendment of the Indian constitution was carried out?

(A) 1951

(B) 1955

(C) 1962

(D) 1971

Answer: (C)

Exp: The First Constitutional Amendment Act was enacted in 1951, adding restrictions to certain freedoms and introducing the Ninth Schedule.

Q311. Where is the headquarters of “Missile technology control regime” (MTCR) ?

(A) Japan

(B) China

(C) Russia

(D) USA

Answer: (D)

Exp: The MTCR has its secretariat in Paris, France; the regime was established in 1987 to limit proliferation of missile-delivery technology.

Q312. Who appoints ambassadors to foreign countries?

(A) Prime Minister

(B) External Affairs minister

(C) President

(D) Defence minister

Answer: (C)

Exp: Under Article 53, the executive power of the Union is vested in the President; ambassadors are appointed by the President on the government’s advice.

Q313. The right to vote in India is a__?

(A) Fundamental right

(B) Constitutional right

(C) Legal right

(D) Natural right

Answer: (B)

Exp: The right to vote is a constitutional right, not a Fundamental Right; adult suffrage is provided under Article 326.

Q314. Discrimination on the ground of religion is prohibited by the Indian constitution under ?

(A) Article 13

(B) Article 14

(C) Article 15

(D) Article 16

Answer: (D)

Exp: Discrimination on grounds including religion is prohibited by Article 15; the provision covers discrimination by the State on specified grounds.

Q315. The National Disaster management Authority (NDMA) is headed by?

(A) Prime Minister of India

(B) President of India

(C) Governor of States

(D) Chief Minister of States

Answer: (A)

Exp: The National Disaster Management Authority is headed by the Prime Minister of India under the Disaster Management Act, 2005.

Q316. Which Article is referred as the “Jewel of the constitution”?

(A) Article 15

(B) Article 17

(C) Article 23

(D) Article 32

Answer: (B)

Exp: Article 32 is called the “heart and soul” of the Constitution by B.R. Ambedkar because it provides the right to constitutional remedies.

Q317. “Right to freedom” is guaranteed in which of the following Article?

(A) Article 16

(B) Article 19

(C) Article 23

(D) Article 27

Answer: (A)

Exp: The Article 19 guarantees several freedoms, including speech and expression, peaceful assembly, movement, residence and profession, subject to constitutional restrictions.

Q318. Which committee was appointed to look into forming of “Telengana” as a new state?

(A) Chidambaram committee

(B) Srikrishna committee

(C) Duggal committee

(D) None of these

Answer: (B)

Exp: The Srikrishna Committee examined the question of a separate Telangana state and submitted its report in 2010.

Q319. “Anti defection Law” is given in which schedule of Indian constitution?

(A) 8th schedule

(B) 10th schedule

(C) 12th schedule

(D) 14th schedule

Answer: (B)

Exp: The anti-defection law is contained in the 10th Schedule, introduced by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985.

Q320. On which day National Panchayati Raj day observed in India?

(A) April 21

(B) April 22

(C) April 23

(D) April 24

Answer: (D)

Exp: National Panchayati Raj Day is observed on 24 April, commemorating the constitutional recognition of Panchayati Raj through the 73rd Amendment Act, 1992.

Q321. Who was the first “Chief Election Commissioner” of India?

(A) Nagendra Singh

(B) Sukumar sen

(C) T N Seshan

(D) T Swaminath

Answer: (B)

Exp: Sukumar Sen was India’s first Chief Election Commissioner and served from 1950 to 1958; he supervised the first general election of 1951–52.

Q322. Who act as the Chairperson of GST council ?

(A) President of India

(B) Prime Minister

(C) Union Finance Minister

(D) Finance Chief Secretary

Answer: (C)

Exp: The GST Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister under Article 279A, inserted by the 101st Amendment Act, 2016.

Q323. Which of the following committee is associated with the issue of corruption of India?

(A) Santhanam committee

(B) Malimath committee

(C) A.N Mulla committee

(D) Krishna Iyer committee

Answer: (A)

Exp: The Santhanam Committee examined corruption and recommended institutional measures against corruption; it was appointed in 1962.

Q324. Which Schedule of the Indian constitution is related to the languages of India?

(A) 7th schedule

(B) 8th schedule

(C) 9th schedule

(D) 10th schedule

Answer: (C)

Exp: Indian constitutional languages are listed in the 8th Schedule; it currently contains 22 languages.

Q325. The law on which the Supreme court functions was taken from ?

(A) England

(B) Ireland

(C) USSR

(D) Japan

Answer: (C)

Exp: India’s constitutional and judicial institutions were strongly influenced by the English/UK system, including parliamentary government and the rule-of-law tradition.

Q326. Which of the following writ is issued by a higher court to a lower court ?

(A) Haebus Corpus

(B) Quo Warranto

(C) Prohibition

(D) None of these

Answer: (D)

Exp: The writ of Prohibition is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to prevent it from exceeding its jurisdiction.

Q327. “Ramon Magsaysay” award is named after the former president of ?

(A) Phillipines

(B) Thailand

(C) Indonesia

(D) Vietnam

Answer: (A)

Exp: The Ramon Magsaysay Award is named after Ramon Magsaysay, President of the Philippines from 1953 until his death in 1957.

Q328. The ideals of “Liberty” “Equality” and “Fraternity” in the preamble have been taken from the__?

(A) Russian

(B) American

(C) French

(D) German

Answer: (B)

Exp: The ideals of Liberty, Equality and Fraternity in the Preamble were inspired by the French Revolution; the French constitutional tradition influenced the framing of these ideals.

Q329. Who is the first Indian President to die in office ?

(A) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan

(B) V V Giri

(C) Zakir Hussain

(D) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy

Answer: (D)

Exp: Zakir Husain was the first Indian President to die in office, on 3 May 1969.

Q330. “Right to Education” has been passed under which amendment act ?

(A) 24th amendment act

(B) 42nd amendment act

(C) 56th amendment act

(D) 86th amendment act

Answer: (B)

Exp: The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 inserted Article 21A, establishing education for children aged 6–14 as a Fundamental Right; the RTE Act was enacted in 2009.

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Prepare smarter, not harder!

Prepare smarter, not harder!

Prepare smarter, not harder!

Prepare smarter, not harder!

Prepare Smarter, Not Harder!