Q1. Which one of the following Amendments of the Constitution of India deals with the issue of strengthening of the Panchayati Raj?
(A) 42nd
(B) 44th
(C) 73rd
(D) 86th
Answer: (C)
Exp: The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj institutions. It inserted Part IX, titled “The Panchayats,” and added the Eleventh Schedule containing 29 subjects. It came into force on 24 April 1993.
Q2. Which of the language is not included in the 8th Schedule of the Constitution?
(A) English
(B) Hindi
(C) Sanskrit
(D) Urdu
Answer: (A)
Exp: Eighth Schedule contains 22 languages; English is not one of them. The Constitution originally listed 14 languages; Sindhi was added by the 21st Amendment, 1967, three languages by the 71st Amendment, 1992, and four more by the 92nd Amendment, 2003.
Q3. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts was termed as Mini Constitution?
(A) 42nd
(B) 44th
(C) 46th
(D) 50th
Answer: (A)
Exp: The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 is known as the “Mini-Constitution” because of its wide-ranging changes. It added Socialist, Secular and Integrity to the Preamble and made major changes in several constitutional provisions. The amendment was enacted during the Emergency period.
Q4. When was the ASSAM RTI Act enacted in Assam?
(A) 2000
(B) 2001
(C) 2002
(D) 2003
Answer: (B)
Exp: The Assam Right to Information Act was enacted in 2001. It received assent and was notified in the Assam Gazette on 7 May 2002, when it came into force. It preceded the central Right to Information Act, 2005.
Q5. The National Motto of India is:
(A) Satyamev Jayate
(B) Vande Mataram
(C) Jai Jawan Jai Kisan
(D) Jai Hindi
Answer: (A)
Exp: ‘Satyameva Jayate’ is taken from the Mundaka Upanishad. It was adopted as the national motto on 26 January 1950.
Q6. The distribution of Legislative powers between the Centre and the States in the Constitution is given in:
(A) Sixth Schedule
(B) Seventh Schedule
(C) Eighth Schedule
(D) Ninth Schedule
Answer: (B)
Exp: The Seventh Schedule contains the Union List, State List and Concurrent List, allocating legislative subjects between the Union and States. This division is linked to Article 246.
Q7. The Finance Commission consists of a Chairman and:
(A) Seven other members
(B) Five other members
(C) Four other members
(D) The President
Answer: (C)
Exp: Article 280 provides for the Finance Commission. It consists of a Chairman and four other members, appointed by the President. It is normally constituted every five years or earlier if considered necessary.
Q8. Which Constitutional Amendment led the establishment of the Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes?
(A) 41st Constitutional Amendment
(B) 82nd Constitutional Amendment
(C) 65th Constitutional Amendment
(D) 76th Constitutional Amendment
Answer: (C)
Exp: The 65th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1990 replaced the earlier single-member Special Officer arrangement with a multi-member Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes under Article 338. The first constitutional Commission under the 65th Amendment was constituted in 1992.
Q9. Which one of the following cannot be the ground for proclamation of Emergency under the Constitution of India?
(A) War
(B) Armed rebellion
(C) External aggression
(D) Internal disturbance
Answer: (D)
Exp: Article 352 deals with National Emergency. The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 replaced ‘internal disturbance’ with ‘armed rebellion’ as a ground for National Emergency.
Q10. CAA (Bill) 2019 provides a path to Indian citizenship for person belonging to religious minority groups persecuted in:
(A) Pakistan
(B) Bangladesh
(C) Afghanistan
(D) All of these
Answer: (D)
Exp: The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 concerns specified non-Muslim communities from Pakistan, Bangladesh and Afghanistan who meet the statutory conditions. The Act was enacted in December 2019; the rules were notified in 2024.
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Q11. Which Amendment Act introduced changes in the Preamble to the Indian Constitution?
(A) The 38th Amendment Act, 1975
(B) The 40th Amendment Act, 1976
(C) The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
(D) The 44th Amendment Act, 1979
Answer: (C)
Exp: The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 inserted the words ‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’ and ‘Integrity’ into the Preamble. The amendment was enacted in 1976.
Q12. Who is referred as the Supreme Commander of forces in India?
(A) General of the Army
(B) Defence Minister
(C) President
(D) Field Marshal
Answer: (C)
Exp: Article 53 provides that the President exercises the supreme command of the Defence Forces of the Union, subject to law. Article 53(2) deals with the exercise of this command in accordance with law.
Q13. Which of the following was not included when the writing of the Constitution of India was completed on 29th November, 1949?
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Fundamental Duties
(C) President’s Rule
(D) Emergency
Answer: (B)
Exp: Fundamental Duties were not part of the original Constitution. They were added by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 and are contained in Part IVA, Article 51A.
Q14. The idea of Preamble has been borrowed in Indian Constitution from the Constitution of:
(A) Italy
(B) Canada
(C) France
(D) USA
Answer: (D)
Exp: The Indian Constitution’s Preamble was influenced by the Preamble of the U.S. Constitution. The U.S. Constitution begins with ‘We the People’, a formulation also reflected in India’s Preamble.
Q15. The Right to Education for children aged 6–14 became a Fundamental Right in:
(A) 1998
(B) 2001
(C) 2002
(D) 2000
Answer: (C)
Exp: The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 inserted Article 21A for free and compulsory education of children aged 6–14.
Q16. Who was Chairman of the First Finance Commission of India?
(A) Shri Santhanam
(B) K. C. Neogy
(C) Dr. Raj Mannar
(D) A. K. Chanda
Answer: (B)
Exp: The First Finance Commission was constituted in 1951 under Article 280 and was chaired by K. C. Neogy.
Q17. Who described the Directive Principles as a novel feature of the Constitution?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Rajendra Prasad
(C) S. N. Mukherjee
(D) B. R. Ambedkar
Answer: (D)
Exp: B. R. Ambedkar described the Directive Principles as a novel feature. They are contained in Part IV, Articles 36–51.
Q18. Which is NOT a Fundamental Right today?
(A) Right to equality
(B) Right against exploitation
(C) Right to property
(D) Right to carry on trade and business
Answer: (C)
Exp: The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 removed the Right to Property from Fundamental Rights. It is now a constitutional right under Article 300A.
Q19. Article 21 ensures:
(A) Right to Religion
(B) Due Process of Law
(C) Right to Life and Personal Liberty
(D) Procedure established by Law
Answer: (C)
Exp: Article 21 protects life and personal liberty. It states that no person shall be deprived of them except according to procedure established by law. It is in Part III.
Q20. Which Bill cannot be first introduced in Rajya Sabha?
(A) Ordinary Bill
(B) Constitutional Amendment Bill
(C) State Re-organisation Bill
(D) Money Bill
Answer: (D)
Exp: A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha. Article 110 defines a Money Bill and the Rajya Sabha can only recommend changes within 14 days.
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Q21. Which state has the largest number of Rajya Sabha seats?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Bihar
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Karnataka
Answer: (A)
Exp: Uttar Pradesh elects 31 Rajya Sabha members, the highest among states. It also has 80 Lok Sabha seats.
Q22. Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution is provided by:
(A) Article 368
(B) Article 103
(C) Article 129
(D) Article 234
Answer: (A)
Exp: Article 368 provides Parliament’s constitutional amendment power and procedure. Some federal provisions also require ratification by at least half of the states.
Q23. Which Constitutional Amendment reduced the voting age from 21 to 18?
(A) 66th Amendment
(B) 62nd Amendment
(C) 61st Amendment
(D) 63rd Amendment
Answer: (C)
Exp: The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988 reduced the voting age from 21 to 18 years by amending Article 326.
Q24. The ideal of a Welfare State is mainly enshrined in:
(A) Preamble
(B) Directive Principles of State Policy
(C) Fundamental Rights
(D) Seventh Schedule
Answer: (B)
Exp: The Welfare State ideal is primarily reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy, Part IV. They guide the State toward social and economic justice.
Q25. Article 51A contains:
(A) Fundamental Duties
(B) Suspension of Fundamental Rights
(C) Special powers of Governors
(D) Writs
Answer: (A)
Exp: Fundamental Duties are in Article 51A, Part IVA. They were inserted by the 42nd Amendment, 1976; an 11th duty was added by the 86th Amendment.
Q26. Which statement about the Vice-President is NOT correct?
(A) He is not eligible for re-election
(B) He must be at least 35 years old
(C) He is elected by members of both Houses of Parliament
(D) All are correct
Answer: (A)
Exp: The Vice-President is eligible for re-election, so statement A is incorrect. Article 66 deals with election and Article 67 with term of office.
Q27. Which provisions provide for equality of men and women before law and protection against sex discrimination?
(A) Articles 14 and 15
(B) Fifth Schedule
(C) Indian Independence Act
(D) Article 20
Answer: (A)
Exp: Article 14 guarantees equality before law and equal protection, while Article 15 prohibits specified discrimination including on grounds of sex. Both are in Part III.
Q28. Which former justice of Supreme Court has been appointed as the first Lokpal of India?
(A) K Subba Rao
(B) Pinaki Chandra Ghosh
(C) AM Lodha
(D) Deepak Mishra
Answer: (B)
Exp: Pinaki Chandra Ghosh was appointed India's first Lokpal in 2019. The Lokpal is established under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013.
Q29. Name the woman who was the first woman Judge of Delhi High Court.
(A) Sujata Manohar
(B) Anna Chandy
(C) Leila Seth
(D) Rama Paul
Answer: (C)
Exp: Leila Seth was the first woman judge of the Delhi High Court and became the first woman Chief Justice of a state High Court on 5 August 1991.
Q30. National Voters' Day is celebrated on:
(A) 15 January
(B) 25 January
(C) 15 February
(D) 25 February
Answer: (B)
Exp: 25 January is National Voters' Day. It was first observed in 2011, marking the Election Commission's foundation day of 25 January 1950.
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Q31. Which personality is known as ‘Deshratna’?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Dr Rajendra Prasad
(C) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(D) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Answer: (B)
Exp: Dr Rajendra Prasad is known as Deshratna and was India's first President from 1950–1962.
Q32. Where is Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration?
(A) Gurugram
(B) New Delhi
(C) Mussoorie
(D) Nainital
Answer: (C)
Exp: LBSNAA is located at Mussoorie, Uttarakhand and was established in 1959.
Q33. The Chairman of the State Public Service Commission is appointed by:
(A) Chairman of UPSC
(B) President of India
(C) Governor of the State
(D) Chief Minister
Answer: (C)
Exp: Article 316 provides for appointment of the Chairman and members of a State Public Service Commission by the Governor.
Q34. The birthday of which personality is celebrated every year on 14 April?
(A) Dr Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
(B) Dr B. R. Ambedkar
(C) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(D) Dr A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
Answer: (B)
Exp: Dr B. R. Ambedkar was born on 14 April 1891; Ambedkar Jayanti is observed annually on 14 April.
Q35. Which foreign national was honoured with Bharat Ratna?
(A) Nelson Mandela
(B) Bill Clinton
(C) Adolf Hitler
(D) Boris Yeltsin
Answer: (A)
Exp: Nelson Mandela received the Bharat Ratna in 1990.
Q36. Financial distribution between Union and States takes place on recommendations of the:
(A) Finance Commission
(B) Inter-State Council
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Sarkaria Commission
Answer: (A)
Exp: Finance Commission recommends tax devolution between Union and States under Article 280.
Q37. The Union Public Service Commission submits its annual report to the:
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Home Minister
Answer: (B)
Exp: Article 323 requires UPSC to submit its annual report to the President, who lays it before Parliament.
Q38. Who is considered the ‘Architect of Panchayati Raj in India’?
(A) Acharya Narendra Dev
(B) G. V. K. Rao
(C) B. R. Mehta
(D) L. M. Singhvi
Answer: (C)
Exp: Balwant Rai Mehta is called the architect of Panchayati Raj; his committee recommended a three-tier system in 1957.
Q39. Election to the office of the President is conducted by:
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) Prime Minister's Office
(C) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
(D) Election Commission of India
Answer: (D)
Exp: Article 324 vests control of elections, including the Presidential election, in the Election Commission of India.
Q40. Which Article of the Indian Constitution prohibits discrimination on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex and place of birth?
(A) Article 25
(B) Article 19
(C) Article 23
(D) Article 15
Answer: (D)
Exp: Article 15 prohibits discrimination against citizens on specified grounds. It is part of Fundamental Rights in Part III.
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Q41. Who was the President of India at the time of proclamation of emergency in the year 1975?
(A) V V Giri
(B) Giani Zail Singh
(C) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad
(D) Shankar Dayal Sharma
Answer: (C)
Exp: The President during the National Emergency of 1975 was Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed. It was proclaimed on 25 June 1975 under Article 352.
Q42. By which of the following Acts were the High court’s of Bombay, Madras and Calcutta established?
(A) India High Courts Act, 1911
(B) India High Courts Act, 1865
(C) India High Courts Act, 1861
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
Exp: The Presidency High Courts at Calcutta, Bombay and Madras were established under the Indian High Courts Act, 1861; they began functioning in 1862.
Q43. The reservation of seats for Anglo-Indian Community in the lok Sabha and State assemblies has been done away with
(A) 104th Constitutional Amendment Act
(B) 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act
(C) 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act
(D) 105th Constitutional Amendment Act
Answer: (A)
Exp: The 104th Constitutional Amendment Act ended the nominated-seat provision for the Anglo-Indian community in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies. It was enacted in 2019 and took effect in 2020.
Q44. Who had proposed ‘Partyless Democracy’ in India?
(A) SA Dange
(B) Ram Manohar Lohiya
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Jayaprakash Narayan
Answer: (D)
Exp: Jayaprakash Narayan advocated partyless democracy as part of his concept of total revolution, emphasising decentralisation and people’s participation.
Q45. The Articles of the Constitution of India which deal with Directive Principles of State Policy are:
(A) 26 to 41
(B) 30 to 45
(C) 36 to 51
(D) 40 to 55
Answer: (C)
Exp: Articles 36–51 contain the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV of the Constitution.
Q46. Which Commission advocated the establishment of a Permanent Inter- State Council, called ‘Inter- Governmental Council?
(A) Punchhi Commission
(B) Sarkaria Commission
(C) Radhakrishnan Commission
(D) Moily Commission
Answer: (B)
Exp: The Sarkaria Commission recommended a permanent Inter-State Council. The Council was established under Article 263 in 1990.
Q47. The power to make treaties with other nations lies with:
(A) the Parliament
(B) the Prime Minister of India
(C) the President of India
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
Exp: The president may negotiate treaties with foreign nations, but he must obtain advice and consent from the Senate In India, treaty-making is an executive function; legislation may be required to implement a treaty domestically under Article 253.
Q48. Chairperson and Members of the State Human Rights Commission are appointed by:
(A) Governor
(B) President
(C) Chief Justice of the High Court of the concerned State
(D) Chief Justice of India
Answer: (A)
Exp: The chairperson and members of a State Human Rights Commission are appointed by the governor they can only be removed by the President (and not by the Governor) The State Human Rights Commission is governed by the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
Q49. The decentralisation system was recommended by:
(A) C. Rajgopalachari
(B) J B Kriplani
(C) Balwant Rai Mehta
(D) Ashok Mehta
Answer: (C)
Exp: Decentralized planning on the basis of Panchayati Raj institutions was recommended by Balawant Rai Mehta Committee The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee submitted its report in 1957 and recommended a three-tier Panchayati Raj system.
Q50. Who was the first Chief Justice of the Assam High Court?
(A) Ranjan Gogoi.
(B) R.F. Lodge
(C) Bishnu Ram Medhi.
(D) Gauri Sankar Bhattacharya
Answer: (B)
Exp: R. F. Lodge (He sworn in as the first CJI of Assam High Court on 5th April, 1948) The source records R. F. Lodge as the first Chief Justice, taking office on 5 April 1948.
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Q51. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution, the Assam State Finance Commission was established?
(A) Article 371 (B)
(B) Article 352
(C) Article 370.
(D) Article 243-I
Answer: (D)
Exp: Article 243-I Article 243-I provides for State Finance Commissions.
Q52. The Supreme Court has declared access to the Internet a fundamental right under Article ______ of the Indian Constitution.
(A) 14
(B) 21
(C) 19
(D) 17
Answer: (C)
Exp: The Supreme Court has declared access to the internet a fundamental right under Article 19 of the Indian Constitution. Article 19 deals with Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech etc In Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of India (2020), the Supreme Court linked Internet-based speech and expression with Article 19(1)(a).
Q53. Who presides the joint session of Parliament?
(A) President of India
(B) Chairperson of Rajya Sabha
(C) Senior most member of Parliament
(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer: (D)
Exp: The joint sitting of the Parliament is called by the President of India (Article 108) and is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha Article 108 deals with joint sittings of Parliament.
Q54. Who was the first Chairman of the Backward Classes Commission?
(A) Jagjivan Ram
(B) Kaka Saheb Kalelkar
(C) B D Sharma
(D) B R Ambedkar
Answer: (B)
Exp: The First Backward Class Commission was set up by a Presidential Order under Article 340 of the Constitution of India on Jan 29th, 1953, under the Chairmanship of Shri Kaka Kalelkar (popularly known as Kaka Kalelkar Commission) The first Backward Classes Commission was appointed in 1953 under Article 340.
Q55. In the logo of Lokpal, Vigilance is represented by:
(A) Tricolour
(B) Ashoka Chakra
(C) Judges Bench
(D) Two hands
Answer: (B)
Exp: The logo of Lokpal is based upon the literal meaning of LOKPAL, LOK – meaning people and PAL – meaning caretaker, i.e. "caretaker of people". The Logo is designed by Shri Prashant Mishra, Prayagraj, Uttar Pradesh The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act was enacted in 2013.
Q56. Which Article of the Constitution provides that every state shall endeavour to provide an adequate facility for instruction in mother-tongue at primary stage of education?
(A) Article 349
(B) Article 350
(C) Article 350-A
(D) Article 351
Answer: (C)
Exp: Article 350-A deals with the facilities for instruction in mother-tongue at primary stage Article 350A concerns mother-tongue instruction at the primary stage for linguistic minority children.
Q57. Who in the beginning, presented the idea of Indian Constituent Assembly in pre-independence day?
(A) MN Roy
(B) BR Ambedkar
(C) Annie Besant
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer: (A)
Exp: The idea of a Constituent Assembly for India for the first time was put forward by M.N. Roy was a pioneer of the communist movement in India in 1934 M. N. Roy proposed the idea in 1934; the Constituent Assembly was later formed in 1946
Q58. As per the Constitution of India, the President may resign his office by writing under his hand addressed to:
(A) Chief Election Commission
(B) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(C) The Chief Justice of India
(D) The Vice President
Answer: (D)
Exp: The President addresses the resignation letter to the Vice-President
Q59. Which Act established Public Service Commission in India for the first time?
(A) Indian Council Act, 1892
(B) Council Act, 1909
(C) Government of India Act, 1919
(D) Government of India Act, 1935
Answer: (C)
Exp: Public service commission in India was established by the Government of India act 1919 The Government of India Act, 1919 introduced the Public Service Commission provision; the first PSC was established in 1926
Q60. How many times has Financial Emergency been declared in India so far?
(A) 5 times
(B) 4 times
(C) Once
(D) Never
Answer: (D)
Exp: Financial Emergency has never been imposed in India till date A Financial Emergency under Article 360 has never been proclaimed in India
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Q61. Who presided over the inaugural meeting of the Constituent Assembly of India?
(A) Dr Rajendra Prasad
(B) Dr Sachidanand Sinha
(C) BR Ambedkar
(D) Sardar Patel
Answer: (B)
Exp: Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha presided over the inaugural meeting of the Constituent Assembly of India. The inaugural meeting took place on December 9, 1946 The first meeting was held on 9 December 1946; Dr Rajendra Prasad was later elected permanent President
Q62. “To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India”, is a provision made in:
(A) Preamble of the Constitution
(B) Directive Principles of State Policy
(C) Fundamental Rights
(D) Fundamental Duties
Answer: (D)
Exp: were added to the Constitution by 42nd Amendment Act on the recommendation of Swaran Singh Committee. ‘To uphold and protect [81] the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India’, is enshrined as one of the Fundamental Duties under Article 51A(c) of the Indian Constitution This duty appears in Article 51A(c) in Part IVA and was inserted by the 42nd Amendment in 1976
Q63. Archaeological Survey of India is an attached office of the Department/ Ministry of:
(A) Culture
(B) Tourism
(C) Science and Technology
(D) Human Resource Development
Answer: (A)
Exp: The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI), under the Ministry of Culture, was established in the year 1861 ASI is an attached office of the Ministry of Culture and traces its institutional origin to 1861
Q64. The Speaker can stop a member of Parliament from speaking and let another member speak. This phenomenon is known as:
(A) Decorum
(B) Crossing the floor
(C) Interpellation
(D) Yielding the floor
Answer: (D)
Exp: The speaker of the Lok sabha can ask a member of the house to stop speaking and let another member speak. It is known as yielding the floor Yielding the floor means giving another member an opportunity to speak after the current speaker stops
Q65. What is the quorum to constitute a meeting of Lok Sabha?
(A) One-sixth of the total members of the House
(B) One-tenth of the total members of the House
(C) One-fourth of the total members of the House
(D) One-third of the total members of the House
Answer: (B)
Exp: The quorum of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha is one-tenth of the total membership of each house The constitutional quorum for either House is one-tenth of its total membership
Q66. What are the maximum number of seats fixed for Rajya Sabha in India?
(A) 245 seats
(B) 252 seats
(C) 260 seats
(D) 250 seats
Answer: (D)
Exp: The Rajya Sabha should consist of not more than 250 members - 238 members representing the States and Union Territories, and 12 members nominated by the President Article 80 provides for a maximum of 250 members in Rajya Sabha: 238 elected representatives and 12 nominated members
Q67. ______ is not formally prescribed device available to members of parliament.
(A) Zero hour
(B) Call Attention Notice
(C) Half-an hour discussion
(D) Short-duration discussion
Answer: (A)
Exp: The time gap between the question hour and agenda is known for zero hour. It is not mentioned in the Rules of procedure Zero Hour is a parliamentary practice but is not formally mentioned in the Rules of Procedure
Q68. Which Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the administrative provisions of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram?
(A) First
(B) Second
(C) Sixth
(D) Fifth
Answer: (C)
Exp: “The provisions of the Sixth Schedule shall apply to the administration of the tribal areas in the State of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram”. [83] The Sixth Schedule provides autonomous administration for specified tribal areas, including those in Assam
Q69. The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?
(A) The Preamble
(B) The Fundamental Rights
(C) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(D) The Fundamental Duties
Answer: (A)
Exp: The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in Preamble The Preamble expresses the constitutional ideals and objectives adopted by the Constituent Assembly
Q70. Which kind of emergency can be proclaimed on the grounds of failure of Constitutional machinery in States?
(A) National Emergency
(B) State Emergency
(C) Financial Emergency
(D) State and Financial Emergency both
Answer: (B)
Exp: According to Article 356, President's Rule can be imposed on any state of India on the grounds of the failure of the constitutional machinery Article 356 deals with failure of constitutional machinery in a state and is commonly called President’s Rule
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Q71. Who among the following is the custodian of the Constitution of India?
(A) The President of India
(B) The Prime Minister of India
(C) The Lok Sabha Secretariat
(D) The Supreme Court of India
Answer: (D)
Exp: is the apex court in India. As stated by the Indian Constitution, the function of the Supreme Court of India is that of a custodian of the Constitution The Supreme Court has the constitutional role of protecting and interpreting the Constitution
Q72. By which one of the following Constitutional Amendments Delhi has become National Capital Region (NCR)?
(A) 61st Amendment
(B) 69th Amendment
(C) 71th Amendment
(D) 79th Amendment
Answer: (B)
Exp: Constitutional Amendment Act of 1991 designated the Union Territory of Delhi as the National Capital Territory of Delhi The 69th Amendment Act, 1991 inserted special provisions for Delhi and designated it as the National Capital Territory
Q73. The first non-Congress Government at the Centre was led by:
(A) ) Jaya Prakash Narayan
(B) Morarji Desai
(C) Chaudhury Charan Singh
(D) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
Answer: (B)
Exp: of Janata Party was the first non-Congress Prime Minister of India. He was the 4th PM (1977-1979) of India Morarji Desai became Prime Minister in 1977 after the Janata Party defeated the Congress
Q74. According to Article 170 of the Indian Constitution, the minimum and maximum strength of members of Legislative Assembly in a state can be respectively:
(A) 40 and 400
(B) 50 and 450
(C) 50 and 500
(D) 60 and 500
Answer: (D)
Exp: The Legislative Assembly consists of not more than 500 members and not less than 60. The Legislative Assembly of Assam comprises 126 Members.
Q75. Election to the office of President is conducted by:
(A) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(B) The Prime Minister’s Office
(C) The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
(D) The Election Commission of India
Answer: (D)
Exp: Under Article 324 of the Constitution of India, the authority to conduct elections to the Office of President is vested in the Election Commission of India.
Q76. In which case did the Supreme Court first declare that the Preamble is not a part of the Constitution?
(A) Berubari
(B) Sajjan Singh
(C) Golak Nath
(D) Kesavanand Bharti
Answer: (A)
Exp: In the Berubari case (1960) the Supreme Court of India declared that the Preamble is not an integral part of the Indian Constitution.
Q77. As per Indian Protocol, who among the following ranks highest in the Order of Precedence?
(A) Deputy Prime Minister
(B) Former President
(C) Governor of a State within his State
(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer: (C)
Exp: Under the Indian Order of Precedence, a Governor ranks very high within the state where he or she is serving; the source therefore marks the Governor of a State within his State option.
Q78. The concept of single citizenship in the Indian Constitution is inspired by which country?
(A) Germany
(B) France
(C) Ireland
(D) England
Answer: (D)
Exp: This Concept of Single Citizenship is borrowed from the British Constitution.
Q79. Under which Article, the Supreme Court has the power to review its own judgement or order?
(A) Article 137
(B) Article 254
(C) Article 256
(D) Article 142
Answer: (A)
Exp: Article 137 of the Constitution of India grants the Supreme Court the power to review any of its judgments or orders.
Q80. Who was the first woman to become a Chief Election Commissioner of India?
(A) RM Nikaur
(B) SK Bedi
(C) VS Ramadevi
(D) GD Das
Answer: (C)
Exp: V. S. Ramadevi was the first woman Chief Election Commissioner of India. Apart from this, she was also the first female Governor of Karnataka.
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Q81. Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of the Indian Parliament separately by the special majority?
(A) Ordinary Bill
(B) Money Bill
(C) Finance Bill
(D) Constitution Amendment Bill
Answer: (D)
Exp: A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by each House of Parliament separately with the special majority prescribed by Article 368. There is no joint sitting for such a bill.
Q82. Under which Amendment to the Constitution of India was Goods and Services Tax imposed?
(A) 97th
(B) 99th
(C) 100th
(D) 101st
Answer: (D)
Exp: 101st Constitution Amendment Act, 2016 introduced the Goods and Services Tax. GST Bill was first introduced in 2014 as The Constitution (122nd Amendment) Bill.
Q83. Who among the following is the State Legislature decides whether bill is a Money Bill or not?
(A) Speaker of Legislative Assembly
(B) Chief Minister
(C) Chairman of Legislative Council
(D) Leader of Majority Party
Answer: (A)
Exp: The Speaker of the Legislative assembly conducts the business in house and decides whether a bill is a money bill or not.
Q84. Which Amendment of the Constitution provided constitutional status to the Panchayats?
(A) 56th Amendment
(B) 73rd Amendment
(C) 74rd Amendment
(D) 76th Amendment
Answer: (B)
Exp: 73rd amendment of Constitution of India (1993) empowered local governments.
Q85. The Constitution (35th Amendment) Act of 1974 is related to which one of the following States?
(A) Mizoram
(B) Sikkim
(C) Nagaland
(D) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer: (B)
Exp: 35th Amendment Act, 1974 The status of Sikkim as a protectorate state was terminated and Sikkim was given the status of ‘Associate State’ of India.
Q86. Equality before the law or equal protection of the laws within the territory of India is guaranteed under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?
(A) Article 14
(B) Article 15
(C) Article 16
(D) Article 22
Answer: (A)
Exp: One such right is the right to equality which is protected under articles 14 to 18. Article 14 is the most significant of the lot.
Q87. Who among the following fixes the date of election of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
(A) The President of India
(B) The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
(C) The Secretary General of the Lok Sabha
(D) The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Answer: (A)
Exp: The date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President. The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker.
Q88. Under the Constitution of India which of the following is NOT a Fundamental Duty?
(A) To vote in General Election
(B) To develop the scientific temper
(C) To safeguard public property
(D) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideas
Answer: (A)
Exp: The Fundamental Duties are defined as the moral obligations of all citizens to help promote a spirit of patriotism and to uphold the unity of India.
Q89. Who was the first Indian women to elected as President of United Nation General Assembly?
(A) Vijaya lakshmi Pandit
(B) Nargis Dutt
(C) Sucheta Kripalani
(D) Sarojini Naidu
Answer: (A)
Exp: Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit was an Indian diplomat and politician who was elected as the first female president of the United Nations General Assembly.
Q90. The Union Public Service Commission can be entrusted with the functions of a State Public Service Commission with the approval of:
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(D) President of India
Answer: (D)
Exp: Union Public Service Commission may agree to serve the needs of the state on the request of the Governor with approval of the President.
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Q91. The provisions relating to Fundamental Duties in the Constitution of India were added on the recommendation of:
(A) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee.
(B) Iyengar Committee.
(C) Swarn Singh Committee.
(D) Thakkar Commission.
Answer: (C)
Exp: Through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment in 1976, a total of ten fundamental duties were listed down in the Constitution. They were based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
Q92. In which article of Indian constitution is Attorney General mentioned?
(A) Article 76
(B) Article 79
(C) Article 78
(D) Article 77
Answer: (A)
Exp: Article 76 of the constitution mentions that the Attorney General of India is the highest law officer of India.
Q93. Which Article of the Indian Constitution speaks about functions of public service commission’s?
(A) Article 327
(B) Article 320
(C) Article 324
(D) Article 326
Answer: (B)
Exp: Article 320 deals with the functions of the public service commission.
Q94. Who has the authority to decide in the event of dispute in election of the President of India?
(A) Election Commissioner
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Lok Sabha
(D) Supreme Court
Answer: (D)
Exp: The Supreme court of India decides the disputes regarding the election of the President of India and the election of Vice President of India.
Q95. Who was the President of the ‘Independence for India league’ formed in 1928?
(A) Rash Behari Bose
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Srinivasa Iyengar
(D) Rajendra Prasad
Answer: (C)
Exp: Jawaharlal Nehru along with Srinivasa Iyengar and Subhash Chandra Bose founded the Independence for India League in the year 1928.
Q96. Who was the first Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?
(A) Krishnamurthy
(B) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
(C) Violet Alwa
(D) Lal Bahadur Shastri
Answer: (B)
Exp: The vice president of India is the ex-officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan was the first Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
Q97. Which article of the Indian constitution says that Parliament comprises Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and President?
(A) Article 56
(B) Article 79
(C) Article 60
(D) Article 77
Answer: (B)
Exp: According to Article 79 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of President of India and the two Houses of Parliament known as Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and House of the People (Lok Sabha).
Q98. Right to Education became a fundamental right in?
(A) April 2010
(B) April 2004
(C) April 2008
(D) April 2012
Answer: (A)
Exp: India became one of 135 countries to make education a fundamental right for every child when the Act came into force on 1 April 2010.
Q99. What is the minimum duration of stay essential before a person can apply for Indian citizenship?
(A) 3 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 7 years
(D) 10 years
Answer: (C)
Exp: The minimum duration of stay in India before applying for Indian citizenship is 7 years.
Q100. Which of the following Amendment to the Constitution gave supremacy to Directive Principles of State Policy over Fundamental Rights?
(A) 44th Amendment
(B) 42nd Amendment
(C) 40th Amendment
(D) 25th Amendment
Answer: (B)
Exp: 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 gave precedence to Directive Principles of State Policy over Fundamental Rights.
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Q101. Who was the first president of the first session of Asom Chatra Sanmilan?
(A) Lakshminath Bezbaruah
(B) Anandaram Dhekial Phukan
(C) Anandachandra Agarwala
(D) Chandrakumar Agarwala
Answer: (A)
Exp: Lakshminath Bezbarua presided over the first session of the Asom Chatra Sanmilan, an important student organisation in Assam.
Q102. Who among the following is not appointed by the President?
(A) Chief Justice and Judges of High Courts
(B) Governor of State
(C) Chief Justice and Judges of Supreme Court
(D) Vice President
Answer: (D)
Exp: The Vice President is not appointed by the President; the Vice President is elected by members of both Houses of Parliament under Article 66.
Q103. The vacancy of the office of the President must be filled within:
(A) 6 months
(B) 12 months
(C) 1 months
(D) 3 months
Answer: (A)
Exp: If the office of the President falls vacant by resignation, removal, death or otherwise, then election to fill the vacancy should be held within six months from the date of the occurrence of such a vacancy.
Q104. When was the Indian Constitution amended for the first time?
(A) 1949
(B) 1951
(C) 1952
(D) 1953
Answer: (B)
Exp: The Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951, enacted in 1951, made several changes to the Fundamental Rights provisions of the Indian constitution. It provided means to restrict freedom of speech and expression, validation of zamindari abolition laws, and clarified that the right to equality does not bar the enactment of laws which provide "special consideration" for weaker sections of society. It was moved by the then Prime Minister of India, Jawaharlal Nehru, on 10 May 1951 and enacted by Parliament on 18 June 1951.
Q105. Name the Constitutional Amendment Act that was passed to provide free and compulsory education of all children between 6 and 14 years of age:
(A) 86th Amendment Act.
(B) 84th Amendment Act.
(C) 83rd Amendment Act.
(D) 82nd Amendment Act.
Answer: (A)
Exp: The Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002 inserted Article 21-A in the Constitution of India to provide free and compulsory education of all children in the age group of six to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right.
Q106. What type of a right is “Right to vote in elections to Parliament”?
(A) Legal Right
(B) Moral Right
(C) Equitable Right
(D) Constitutional Right
Answer: (D)
Exp: ‘The right to Vote’ in India is a Constitutional right. The Right To Vote is guaranteed by the Constitution of India under Article 326 of the Indian Constitution. The 61 st constitutional amendment of 1988 reduced the voting age for elections to Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies from 21 to 18 years.
Q107. Which of the following factors takes part in atmospheric change?
(A) CO2, vapour
(B) Vapour, dust particles
(C) Storm
(D) Sun, storm, dust particles
Answer: (A)
Exp: Carbon dioxide and water vapour are important atmospheric constituents involved in greenhouse warming and atmospheric change. Water vapour is the most abundant greenhouse gas naturally present in the atmosphere.
Q108. From Constitution of which country, Indian Constitution borrowed the provision for ‘Procedure for amendment of the Constitution’?
(A) Britain
(B) Russia
(C) South Africa
(D) China
Answer: (C)
Exp: Indian Constitution borrowed the provision for ‘Procedure for amendment of the Constitution from the South Africa Consitution.
Q109. The word ‘integrity’ has been added to the Preamble as per which Constitutional Amendment?
(A) 43rd Constitutional Amendment
(B) 45th Constitutional Amendment
(C) 42nd Constitutional Amendment
(D) 46th Constitutional Amendment
Answer: (C)
Exp: Explanation: The Preamble declares that fraternity has to assure two things—the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the nation. The word ‘integrity’ has been added to the Preamble by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment (1976).
Q110. How many female members were part of the Constituent Assembly that framed the Constitution of India?
(A) 12
(B) 10
(C) 14
(D) 15
Answer: (D)
Exp: There were 15 women representatives in the Constituent Assembly, who contributed in the making of our constitution.
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Q111. Which country the right to equality before law under Article 14 of the Indian Constitution has been taken from?
(A) USA
(B) Britain
(C) Russia
(D) Australia
Answer: (B)
Exp: The concept of 'equality before law' is of British origin while the concept of 'equal protection of Laws' has been taken from the American Constitution.
Q112. Which of the following Writs is said to be a guarantor of personal freedom?
(A) Mandamus
(B) Quo Warranto
(C) Habeas Corpus
(D) Certiorari
Answer: (C)
Exp: Habeas Corpus protects individuals against unlawful detention. In India, writ jurisdiction is exercised by the Supreme Court under Article 32 and High Courts under Article 226.
Q113. Which Schedule of the Constitution contains powers, authorities and responsibilities of Panchayati Raj?
(A) Eighth
(B) Ninth
(C) Eleventh
(D) Twelfth
Answer: (C)
Exp: The Eleventh Schedule contains 29 subjects related to Panchayats. It was added by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, which inserted Part IX.
Q114. 'Motion of Thanks' is given by the Indian Parliament to:
(A) Some MP does a very good work
(B) Some citizen does a very good work for the country
(C) Prime Minister does a very good work for the country
(D) President of India after he addresses both Houses of Parliament together
Answer: (D)
Exp: The Motion of Thanks follows the President’s Address under Article 87. It is discussed and voted upon in both Houses and serves as a broad review of the government's policies and programme.
Q115. Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the Constitution?
(A) Right to freedom of religion
(B) Right to property
(C) Right to equality
(D) Right to Constitutional remedies
Answer: (D)
Exp: Dr. B. R. Ambedkar called the Right to Constitutional Remedies the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution. It is guaranteed by Article 32, enabling individuals to approach the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
Q116. Where is the objective of 'social justice' articulated in the Constitution of India?
(A) Article 14
(B) Article 15
(C) Article 16
(D) The Preamble
Answer: (D)
Exp: The Preamble promises social, economic and political justice. These objectives are implemented through Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles, including equality provisions and welfare-oriented policies.
Q117. Which innovative discussion process was introduced by the Indian Parliament to world parliamentary systems?
(A) Question Hour
(B) Zero hour
(C) Resolutions
(D) Presidential Speech
Answer: (B)
Exp: Zero Hour is regarded as an Indian parliamentary innovation. It developed in the early 1960s and allows members to raise urgent public matters without the formal structure of Question Hour. It is not expressly mentioned in the Constitution.
Q118. Which Article says no child below 14 years shall be employed in a factory, mine or hazardous employment?
(A) Article 24
(B) Article 45
(C) Article 330
(D) Article 368
Answer: (A)
Exp: Article 24 prohibits employment of children below 14 years in factories, mines or hazardous employment. It is a Fundamental Right under the Right against Exploitation in Part III.
Q119. The Election Commission of India is a:
(A) One-member Commission
(B) Three-member Commission
(C) Five-member Commission
(D) Seven-member Commission
Answer: (B)
Exp: The Election Commission is a constitutional body under Article 324. It consists of the Chief Election Commissioner and such number of Election Commissioners as the President may determine; it functions as a multi-member body.
Q120. Which Schedule of the Constitution lists the States and Union Territories of India?
(A) First Schedule
(B) Second Schedule
(C) Third Schedule
(D) Fourth Schedule
Answer: (A)
Exp: The First Schedule lists the States and Union Territories of India and their territorial extent. The Seventh Schedule instead distributes legislative subjects between Union and States.
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Q121. What does the Ashoka's wheel in the Indian National Flag represent?
(A) Wheel of peace
(B) Wheel of prosperity
(C) Wheel of the law of dharma
(D) Wheel of authority
Answer: (C)
Exp: The Ashoka Chakra represents the Dharma Chakra or wheel of law. It has 24 spokes and derives from the Lion Capital of Ashoka at Sarnath. The national flag was adopted on 22 July 1947.
Q122. After independence, the first State organized on the basis of language was:
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Kerala
(C) Karnataka
(D) Andhra
Answer: (D)
Exp: Andhra State was created on a linguistic basis in 1953 after the movement associated with Potti Sreeramulu. The States Reorganisation Act, 1956 subsequently reorganized many states on linguistic lines.
Q123. Rajendra Prasad was the permanent President of the Constituent Assembly. Who was its provisional President?
(A) H. N. Kunzru
(B) K. M. Munshi
(C) M. M. Malviya
(D) Sachchidananda Sinha
Answer: (D)
Exp: Sachchidananda Sinha served as the temporary chairman/provisional President at the first meeting of the Constituent Assembly on 9 December 1946. Rajendra Prasad was elected permanent President on 11 December 1946.
Q124. What was the time taken by the Constituent Assembly to frame the Constitution?
(A) 2 years 11 months and 18 days
(B) 3 years 7 months
(C) 1 year 11 months 20 days
(D) 2 years 10 months 20 days
Answer: (A)
Exp: The Constituent Assembly took 2 years, 11 months and 18 days. It adopted the Constitution on 26 November 1949, and it came into force on 26 January 1950.
Q125. Who was the first recipient of the Bharat Ratna Award?
(A) B. C. Roy
(B) S. Chandrasekhar
(C) C. V. Raman
(D) Govind Ballabh Pant
Answer: (C)
Exp: C. V. Raman was among the first three Bharat Ratna awardees in 1954, alongside C. Rajagopalachari and Dr. S. Radhakrishnan. The Bharat Ratna is India's highest civilian award.
Q126. Who was the First Speaker of independent India's Lok Sabha?
(A) Hukam Singh
(B) Babu Basanta Kumar Nath
(C) Narasimha Rao
(D) G. V. Mavalankar
Answer: (D)
Exp: G. V. Mavalankar was the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha, serving from 1952 to 1956. He had earlier served as Speaker of the Constituent Assembly (Legislative).
Q127. Which President consistently described Indian secularism as 'Sarva Dharma Samabhav'?
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(B) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(D) Giani Zail Singh
Answer: (A)
Exp: Dr. S. Radhakrishnan frequently explained Indian secularism through Sarva Dharma Samabhava, meaning equal respect for all religions. India's constitutional secularism is reflected in the Preamble and Fundamental Rights.
Q128. Who played an important role in bringing all the States in independent India into the country's unity?
(A) Sardar Patel
(B) Hume
(C) Subhash Chandra Bose
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Answer: (A)
Exp: Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel played the central political role in the integration of princely states after independence, assisted by V. P. Menon. He served as India's first Deputy Prime Minister and Home Minister and is popularly called the Iron Man of India.
Q129. Who unfurls the National Flag in Republic Day ceremony in the state capitals?
(A) Chief Minister
(B) Governor
(C) Deputy Chief Minister
(D) Finance Minister
Answer: (B)
Exp: At state capitals, the Governor unfurls the national flag on Republic Day; at the national ceremony in New Delhi, the President unfurls the flag.
Q130. Which one of the following plants yield bio & diesel or bio fuels?
(A) Hevea brasiliensis
(B) Jatropha Curcas
(C) Juniperus Verginiana
(D) Parthenium orgenatum
Answer: (B)
Exp: Jatropha curcas seeds contain oil that can be processed into biodiesel, making the plant important in biofuel studies.
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Q131. The Planning Commission of India was, established in the year:
(A) 1947
(B) 1949
(C) 1950
(D) 1952
Answer: (C)
Exp: 1950 saw the creation of the Planning Commission, chaired by the Prime Minister. It was replaced by NITI Aayog in 2015.
Q132. Reserve Bank of India was nationalized in the year:
(A) 1935
(B) 1948
(C) 1949
(D) 1951
Answer: (C)
Exp: 1935 was the establishment year of RBI; it became state-owned on 1 January 1949 under the RBI (Transfer to Public Ownership) Act, 1948.
Q133. The Indian flag is rectangular. The ratio of length and breadth is:
(A) 2 :1
(B) 3 : 2
(C) 4 : 3
(D) 5 : 3
Answer: (B)
Exp: The Indian national flag has a length-to-height ratio of 3:2. The Ashoka Chakra has 24 spokes.
Q134. The President of USA is elected after every:
(A) 3 years
(B) 4 years
(C) 5 years
(D) 6 years
Answer: (B)
Exp: The U.S. President is elected for a four-year term; the 22nd Amendment limits a person to two elected terms.
Q135. The maximum age prescribed for election as President is:
(A) 58 years
(B) 60 years
(C) 62 years
(D) No such limit
Answer: (D)
Exp: For election as President, the Constitution prescribes a minimum age of 35 years but no maximum age; this qualification is in Article 58.
Q136. Which is at the apex of the three-tier system of Panchayati Raj?
(A) Gram Sabha
(B) Gram Panchayat
(C) Zila Parishad
(D) Panchayat Samiti
Answer: (C)
Exp: Part IX and the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 provide the constitutional framework for Panchayati Raj; the Zila Parishad is the district-level tier.
Q137. How many ‘Gun Salutes’ are presented to the President on Republic Day?
(A) 25 gun salutes
(B) 21 gun salutes
(C) 15 gun salutes
(D) 10 gun salutes
Answer: (B)
Exp: The ceremonial 21-gun salute is used on major state occasions, including Republic Day and the swearing-in of the President.
Q138. Which historical monument was built to commemorate the visit of King George V and Queen Mary to Bombay?
(A) India Gate
(B) Churchgate
(C) Arc of Victory
(D) Gateway of India
Answer: (D)
Exp: Gateway of India in Mumbai commemorates the 1911 visit of King George V and Queen Mary; the foundation stone was laid in 1913 and the monument completed in 1924.
Q139. "Panchayati Raj' was first introduced in India in October 1959 in which one of the following States?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Kerala
(D) Karnataka
Answer: (A)
Exp: 2 October 1959 marked the launch of Panchayati Raj at Nagaur, Rajasthan.
Q140. When was BTAD formed?
(A) 2003
(B) 1978
(C) 1999
(D) 2000
Answer: (A)
Exp: BTAD was created in 2003 under the Bodo Accord framework; it later became the Bodoland Territorial Area Districts under subsequent arrangements.
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Q141. Megasthenes was the Ambassador of:
(A) The Persians
(B) Seleucus Nicator
(C) Alexander
(D) Darius
Answer: (B)
Exp: Megasthenes served as ambassador of Seleucus I Nicator to the court of Chandragupta Maurya and wrote the lost work Indica.
Q142. Where is Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research located?
(A) Trombay
(B) Kalpakkam
(C) Thrapore
(D) Jaduguda
Answer: (B)
Exp: IGCAR is located at Kalpakkam, Tamil Nadu and focuses on fast-breeder reactor technology and related nuclear research.
Q143. The President of India enjoys emergency powers of:
(A) Four types
(B) Two types
(C) Five types
(D) Three types
Answer: (D)
Exp: The three constitutional emergencies are National Emergency under Article 352, President’s Rule under Article 356, and Financial Emergency under Article 360.
Q144. Who first deciphered the Ashokan inscriptions?
(A) James Princep
(B) James williams
(C) John Munro
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)
Exp: James Prinsep deciphered the Brahmi script used in Ashokan inscriptions in the 1830s, enabling major advances in Mauryan history.
Q145. Which Article is cultural and educational rights?
(A) Article 25 and 33 of the constitution of India
(B) Article 29 and 30 of the constitution of India
(C) Article 27 of the constitution of India
(D) Article 28 of the constitution of India
Answer: (B)
Exp: The cultural and educational rights are protected by Articles 29 and 30, located in Part III of the Constitution.
Q146. Full form of TDS is:
(A) Tax deduction from salary
(B) Tax deduction system
(C) Tax deduction at source
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
Exp: TDS means Tax Deducted at Source and is governed mainly by provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Q147. Who presented the Assam Official Language Bill in Assam Assembly to make Assamese as the sole official language of Assam?
(A) Bimala Prasad Chaliha
(B) Gopinath Bordoloi
(C) Bishnuram Medhi
(D) Tarun Gogoi
Answer: (A)
Exp: Bimala Prasad Chaliha was Chief Minister of Assam when the Assam Official Language Bill was presented; the Assam Official Language Act was enacted in 1960.
Q148. Which of the following non-members of Parliament has the right to address it?
(A) Attorney-General of India
(B) Solicitor- General of India
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) Chief Election Commissioner
Answer: (A)
Exp: Attorney-General of India is the Union Government’s highest law officer. Under Article 76, the Attorney-General has the right to participate in proceedings of either House and its committees, but cannot vote because he is not a Member of Parliament.
Q149. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour comes under which of the following fundamental rights?
(A) Right to freedom
(B) Right against exploitation
(C) Right to education and culture
(D) Right to constitutional remedies
Answer: (B)
Exp: Articles 23–24 constitute the Right against Exploitation. Article 23 prohibits trafficking in human beings and forced labour, while Article 24 prohibits child labour in factories, mines and other hazardous employment.
Q150. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides free and compulsory education of all children in the age group of six to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right?
(A) Article 45
(B) Article 19
(C) Article 21
(D) Article 21 (A)
Answer: (D)
Exp: Free and compulsory education for children aged 6–14 years is a Fundamental Right under Article 21A. It was inserted by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002.
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Q151. Which of the following take part in the election of the President?
(A) Members of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
(B) Members of the Lok Sabha
(C) Members of the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
(D) Members of the Rajya Sabha and the Vidhan Sabha
Answer: (C)
Exp: The President of India is elected by an Electoral College consisting of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of State Legislative Assemblies. Nominated members do not participate in this election. The framework is provided under Article 54.
Q152. The first sitting of Constituent Assembly was held on:
(A) 9th December, 1947
(B) 9th December, 1946
(C) 26th January, 1947
(D) 26th January, 1946
Answer: (B)
Exp: The Constituent Assembly held its first meeting on 9 December 1946 in New Delhi. Sachchidananda Sinha served as the temporary chairman, while Rajendra Prasad later became the permanent President.
Q153. Who among the following was the Constitutional adviser to the Constituent Assembly of India?
(A) M.C. Setalvad
(B) K.M. Munshi
(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) B.N. Rau
Answer: (D)
Exp: B. N. Rau served as the Constitutional Adviser to the Constituent Assembly. He prepared an important initial draft and studied constitutional systems of several countries during the Constitution-making process.
Q154. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha?
(A) President
(B) Vice-President
(C) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
(D) Leader of Opposition
Answer: (B)
Exp: The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha under Article 64. The Chairman presides over the Council of States but is not a member of the Rajya Sabha.
Q155. Who among the following is known as the Father of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Vallabhbhai PateI
Answer: (A)
Exp: Dr. B. R. Ambedkar, Chairman of the Drafting Committee, is widely called the Father of the Indian Constitution in popular exam terminology. He played a central role in drafting and finalizing the constitutional text.
Q156. Which of the following Chief Justices of India has acted as President of India?
(A) M. Hidayatullah
(B) P.B. Gajendra Gadkar
(C) P.N. Bhagwati
(D) All of the above
Answer: (A)
Exp: Justice M. Hidayatullah, then Chief Justice of India, served as Acting President in 1969 after President Zakir Husain’s death and Vice-President V. V. Giri’s resignation to contest the presidential election.
Q157. Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/ reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)? 1. Preamble 2. Directive Principles of State Policy 3. Fundamental Duties Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (D)
Exp: The Preamble, Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties reflect values that are also found in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, adopted by the UN in 1948.
Q158. Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?
(A) Third Schedule
(B) Fifth Schedule
(C) Ninth Schedule
(D) Twelfth Schedule
Answer: (B)
Exp: The Fifth Schedule deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in specified states. It provides safeguards relating to tribal land and governance.
Q159. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its:
(A) advisory jurisdiction
(B) appellate jurisdiction
(C) original jurisdiction
(D) writ jurisdiction
Answer: (C)
Exp: Disputes between the Government of India and one or more States fall under the Supreme Court’s original jurisdiction under Article 131. The Court hears such disputes directly rather than on appeal.
Q160. ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the Constitution of India?
(A) Article 15
(B) Article 19
(C) Article 21
(D) Article 29
Answer: (C)
Exp: Article 21 has been interpreted by the Supreme Court to include the Right to Privacy as part of the right to life and personal liberty. The landmark nine-judge bench judgment in 2017 affirmed privacy as a fundamental right.
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Q161. At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?
(A) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(B) Ministry of Panchayati Raj
(C) Ministry of Rural Development
(D) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
Answer: (D)
Exp: The Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the nodal ministry for implementation of the Forest Rights Act, 2006. The Act recognizes forest rights of Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers subject to its provisions.
Q162. The term 'equal pay for equal work' is a:
(A) Directive Principle of State Policy
(B) Statutory provisions in Labour Law
(C) Fundamental Rights.
(D) Matter of State to pass Bill.
Answer: (A)
Exp: The principle of equal pay for equal work is contained in Article 39(d) as a Directive Principle of State Policy. It seeks equal remuneration for men and women performing equivalent work.
Q163. By which Amendment were ‘Fundamental Duties’ added to the Constitution?
(A) 40th Amendment
(B) 42nd Amendment
(C) 44th Amendment
(D) 45th Amendment
Answer: (B)
Exp: The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 added Fundamental Duties to the Constitution. They are contained in Part IVA, Article 51A.
Q164. No money bill can be introduced in the Lok Sabha without the prior approval of the:
(A) Vice-President
(B) President
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Finance Minister
Answer: (B)
Exp: A Money Bill can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only on the President’s recommendation under Article 117. It cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha.
Q165. Who was the first Assamese to become the Justice of Supreme Court of India?
(A) Ranjan Gogoi
(B) Haliram Deka
(C) Parvati Kumar Goswami
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)
Exp: Parvati Kumar Goswami was the first Assamese to become a Justice of the Supreme Court of India. Ranjan Gogoi later became the first Chief Justice of India from Assam and the Northeast.