Environment

Q1. Which of the following is not the impact of deforestation in India?

(A) Drying of water sources in Himalaya

(B) Loss of biodiversity

(C) Urbanisation

(D) Soil erosion

Answer: (C)

Exp: Urbanisation is primarily a major driver of land-use change and deforestation rather than a direct ecological impact of deforestation. Deforestation can cause soil erosion, biodiversity loss, habitat fragmentation, altered water cycles and increased carbon emissions.

Q2. Environment is a indivisible unit which is created by:

(A) physical resources

(B) biological resources

(C) physical and biological resources

(D) The combination of physical, biological and cultural resources.

Answer: (D)

Exp: Environment is treated as an integrated system consisting of physical, biological and cultural components. Physical resources include air, water and soil; biological components include plants, animals and microorganisms; cultural components arise from human society and activities.

Q3. To protect the Indian Tigers, ‘Project Tiger’ was launched in the year?

(A) 1971

(B) 1973

(C) 1977

(D) 1991

Answer: (B)

Exp: Project Tiger is India’s flagship tiger-conservation programme. It was launched in April 1973, initially covering nine tiger reserves.

Q4. Which one of the following is not responsible for global warming?

(A) Methane

(B) Water vapor

(C) Argon

(D) Carbon dioxide

Answer: (C)

Exp: Argon is a noble gas and is not a greenhouse gas of significance. Carbon dioxide, methane and water vapour are greenhouse gases; water vapour is the most abundant greenhouse gas.

Q5. Ecology is the study of relationship between:

(A) Organism and environment

(B) Man and forest

(C) Soil and water

(D) Husband and wife

Answer: (A)

Exp: Ecology is the scientific study of interactions among organisms and between organisms and their environment.

Q6. The ‘Global Warming’ is due to:

(A) Heavy rainfall

(B) Increase in carbon dioxide

(C) Decrease in carbon dioxide

(D) Increase in forestation

Answer: (B)

Exp: An increase in atmospheric greenhouse gases, especially carbon dioxide, strengthens the greenhouse effect and drives long-term warming. CO₂ concentrations rise mainly from fossil-fuel combustion, land-use change and cement production.

Q7. ‘Narmada Bachao Andolan’ is associated with:

(A) M.S. Swaminathan

(B) Medha Patkar

(C) Chandi Prasad Bhatt

(D) Sundar Lal Bahuguna

Answer: (B)

Exp: Medha Patkar is a prominent leader of the Narmada Bachao Andolan, which opposed displacement and raised environmental and rehabilitation issues around large dams. The movement is strongly associated with the Sardar Sarovar Project on the Narmada River.

Q8. Deforestation is NOT a direct cause of:

(A) Loss of biodiversity

(B) Top soil erosion

(C) Global climate change

(D) Species invasion

Answer: (D)

Exp: Deforestation directly causes habitat loss, biodiversity decline, soil erosion and higher carbon emissions. Species invasion depends on additional ecological and human factors.

Q9. A non-renewable source of energy is:

(A) Solar energy

(B) Petroleum

(C) Wind energy

(D) Biogas

Answer: (B)

Exp: Petroleum is a fossil fuel formed over geological time and is therefore non-renewable. Solar, wind and biogas are renewable sources.

Q10. A major cause of rise in sea level is:

(A) Ozone layer depletion

(B) Monsoon rain

(C) Melting of polar ice caps

(D) Continental drift

Answer: (C)

Exp: Modern sea-level rise is driven mainly by thermal expansion of seawater and melting of land-based glaciers and ice sheets. Melting floating sea ice has little direct effect.

Q11. Ringelmann scale measures the density/opacity of:

(A) Smoke

(B) Polluted water

(C) Fog

(D) Noise

Answer: (A)

Exp: The Ringelmann scale measures the apparent density or opacity of smoke from industrial stacks. It is an air-pollution assessment method.

Q12. The main component of biogas is:

(A) Butane

(B) Ethylene

(C) Methane

(D) Propane

Answer: (C)

Exp: Methane is the major component of biogas, commonly about 50–75%. Biogas is produced by anaerobic digestion of organic matter.

Q13. ECOMARK is related to:

(A) Goods of best quality

(B) Environment-friendly goods

(C) Exported goods

(D) Imported goods

Answer: (B)

Exp: The Ecomark scheme was introduced in 1991 to identify products meeting environmental criteria. It was associated with the Bureau of Indian Standards.

Q14. Which is NOT a renewable energy source?

(A) Solar

(B) Wind

(C) Nuclear

(D) Hydroelectric

Answer: (C)

Exp: Nuclear energy is non-renewable because it depends on finite nuclear fuels such as uranium. Solar, wind and hydropower are renewable energy sources.

Q15. The Environment (Protection) Act was enacted in:

(A) 1982

(B) 1986

(C) 1990

(D) 1992

Answer: (B)

Exp: The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 provides a broad legal framework for environmental protection and improvement in India.

Q16. Which one of the following ecosystem covers the largest areas of the earth’s surface?

(A) Desert ecosystem

(B) Grassland ecosystem

(C) Mountain ecosystem

(D) Marine ecosystem

Answer: (D)

Exp: The marine ecosystem covers the largest area because oceans and seas occupy about 71% of Earth’s surface.

Q17. Which of the following is known as ‘carbon negative country’ in the world?

(A) Afghanistan

(B) India

(C) Bhutan

(D) Nepal

Answer: (C)

Exp: Bhutan is widely recognised as a carbon-negative country because its forests absorb more carbon dioxide than the country emits. Its constitution requires at least 60% forest cover to be maintained.

Q18. Generally, environment can be classified as following categories. Which among the following is not a part of such category?

(A) Operational Environment

(B) Physical Environment

(C) Cultural Environment

(D) Biological Environment

Answer: (A)

Exp: Broad environmental categories include physical environment, biological environment and cultural/social environment. Operational Environment is not a basic category.

Q19. The main reason for the decrease in biodiversity is:

(A) Habitat pollution

(B) Introduction of exotic species

(C) Over exploitation

(D) Natural habitat destruction

Answer: (D)

Exp: The major driver of biodiversity loss is natural habitat destruction and degradation, caused by land conversion, infrastructure, agriculture and habitat fragmentation.

Q20. In a food chain, man is:

(A) Producer

(B) Only primary consumer

(C) Only secondary consumer

(D) Primary as well as secondary consumer

Answer: (D)

Exp: Primary as well as secondary Consumer. In a food chain, man is primary consumer as he eats vegetables (herbivores) as well as secondary consumer as he eats meats and fishes (carnivores) Humans may occupy different trophic levels depending on diet.

Q21. Organisation related to ‘Red Databook’ or ‘Red list’ is:

(A) UTES

(B) IUCN

(C) IBWC

(D) WWF

Answer: (B)

Exp: Red Data Book - It is a document established by IUCN in the year 1964 for documenting rare and endangered species of animals, plants, and fungi. IUCN - 'International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resource' The IUCN Red List is the major global reference for threatened species.

Q22. ‘Saving energy and other resources for the future without sacrificing people’s comfort in the present’ is the definition of which of the following concepts?

(A) Economic growth

(B) Economic development

(C) Sustainable development

(D) Human development

Answer: (C)

Exp: Sustainable development The Brundtland Report of 1987 popularised the modern definition of sustainable development.

Q23. The actual location or place where an organism lives is called:

(A) Habitat

(B) Ecosystem

(C) Niche

(D) Biome

Answer: (A)

Exp: A place where an organism or a community of organisms lives, including the living and nonliving conditions of their surrounding environment, is called a habitat A habitat is the place where an organism normally lives; a niche is its functional role.

Q24. Which one among the following substances does not contribute to global warming?

(A) Oxides of Sulphur and Nitrogen

(B) Methane

(C) Carbon dioxide

(D) Water vapour

Answer: (A)

Exp: Oxides of Sulphur and Nitrogen The source marks sulphur and nitrogen oxides as the answer; their atmospheric effects are complex and differ from those of major greenhouse gases.

Q25. Which one of the following is an air pollutant gas and is released by burning fossil fuel?

(A) Hydrogen

(B) Nitrogen

(C) Oxygen

(D) Sulphur Dioxide

Answer: (D)

Exp: is a major air pollutant produced by burning sulphur-containing fossil fuels

Q26. Which among the following is the secondary pollution?

(A) Smog

(B) Carbon dioxide

(C) Carbon monoxide

(D) Fly ash

Answer: (A)

Exp: Secondary pollutants form in the atmosphere through chemical reactions; photochemical smog is a standard example

Q27. The Government of India enacted the Forest Conservation Act in the year. [80]

(A) 1976

(B) 1980

(C) 1983

(D) 1988

Answer: (B)

Exp: The Forest Conservation Act enacted on 25 October 1980. It provides the conservation of forests and matters connected to the habitat of many animals as well The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 centralised control over diversion of forest land

Q28. Which one of the following is not a greenhouse gas found naturally in the atmosphere?

(A) Nitrogen oxide

(B) Carbon dioxide

(C) Methane

(D) Ozone

Answer: (A)

Exp: s are not a single naturally occurring greenhouse gas category in the same sense as carbon dioxide, methane and ozone

Q29. ‘Global 500’ awards are given for achievements in:

(A) Population control

(B) Campaign against terrorism

(C) Protection of environment

(D) Campaign against drugs

Answer: (C)

Exp: 'Global 500 Awards' are given for outstanding achievement in ?the Protection of environment UNEP’s Global 500 awards recognised outstanding environmental achievement and were instituted in 1987

Q30. Which among the following is most stable ecosystem?

(A) Ocean

(B) Forest

(C) Mountain

(D) Desert

Answer: (A)

Exp: s have enormous extent, strong nutrient and energy cycling, and relatively stable physical conditions compared with many terrestrial ecosystems

Q31. Which of the following group of gases contribute to the “Greenhouse effect”?

(A) Ammonia and Ozone

(B) Carbon monoxide and Sulphur dioxide

(C) Carbon tetrafluoride and Nitrous oxide

(D) Carbon dioxide and Methane

Answer: (D)

Exp: The main greenhouse gases whose concentrations are rising are carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs), hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) and ozone in the lower atmosphere Carbon dioxide and methane are major greenhouse gases; human activities have substantially increased their atmospheric concentrations

Q32. In the context of Indian wildlife, the flying fox is a:

(A) Bat

(B) Kite

(C) Stork

(D) Vulture

Answer: (A)

Exp: The Indian flying fox is India's largest bat, and one of the largest bats in the world The Indian flying fox is a large fruit bat and is a pollinator and seed disperser

Q33. Which among the following is not the constituent of physical environment?

(A) Types of landforms

(B) Soils

(C) Minerals

(D) Settlements

Answer: (D)

Exp: Settlements are part of the human/cultural environment, not the physical environment. Physical environment includes landforms, soil, water, minerals and atmosphere.

Q34. Which of the following are not components of Environment under the category 'natural'?

(A) Ionosphere

(B) Atmosphere

(C) Biosphere

(D) Hydrosphere

Answer: (A)

Exp: Ionosphere is an atmospheric ionised layer; it is not normally listed as a basic component of the natural environment in the conventional classification used in this question.

Q35. Burning of coal releases toxic gases which are responsible for acid rain. The main constituent of these gases are:

(A) Oxides of nitrogen and sulphur

(B) Oxides of copper and ferrous

(C) Oxides of minerals

(D) all of these

Answer: (A)

Exp: Oxides of nitrogen and sulphur combines with the hydrogen in air to form acids i.e. nitric acid, sulphuric acid which are harmful and result in acidic rain.

Q36. What is the name of the Book where the Endangered Species of India are enlisted?

(A) Indian Endangered Species

(B) Indian Red Data Book

(C) Endangered Species of India

(D) None of the above

Answer: (B)

Exp: The Indian Red Data Book records information on threatened and endangered species; the broader modern concept is represented by IUCN Red Lists.

Q37. Which one of the following is the source of renewable energy in India?

(A) Coal

(B) Petroleum

(C) Biomass

(D) Kerosene oil

Answer: (C)

Exp: Examples of renewable energy sources are: Solar energy, Wind power, Biomass, Tidal energy, Geothermal energy.

Q38. The large ecological area that is characterised by its climate, soil type and vegetation and by dominant plants and animals is called:

(A) Ecotone

(B) Biosphere

(C) Biome

(D) Ecology

Answer: (C)

Exp: A biome is a large ecological region defined by characteristic climate, vegetation and animal life. Major examples include deserts, grasslands and tropical forests.

Q39. Which of the following pollutants in water causes ‘Minamata’ disease?

(A) Salmonella

(B) Methyl Mercury

(C) Lead

(D) Perchlorate

Answer: (B)

Exp: Minamata disease is a neurological disease caused by severe mercury poisoning.

Q40. What is a Red Data Book (also called as a Red List)?

(A) Document relating to drought regions.

(B) Document detailing highly polluted zones.

(C) Document detailing rare and endangered species of animals, plants etc.

(D) Document relating to Seismic zones.

Answer: (C)

Exp: etc.

Q41. Taj Mahal is greatly affected due to:

(A) Tourists

(B) Acid rain

(C) Deforestation

(D) Sound pollution

Answer: (B)

Exp: The Taj Mahal has been affected by air pollution and acid deposition. Acid rain can react with calcium-carbonate-rich marble, contributing to surface deterioration and discoloration.

Q42. In terms of area, which Indian state has the largest forest cover?

(A) Arunachal Pradesh

(B) Chhattisgarh

(C) Madhya Pradesh

(D) Odisha

Answer: (C)

Exp: By forest-cover area, Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover among Indian states. This differs from forest cover as a percentage of geographical area, where Mizoram has traditionally ranked highest among states.

Q43. Which gas leaked in the Bhopal gas tragedy?

(A) Carbon monoxide

(B) Methyl isocyanate

(C) Ethyl cyanide

(D) Phenyl isocyanate

Answer: (B)

Exp: The toxic gas involved in the Bhopal disaster was methyl isocyanate (MIC). The leak occurred during the night of 2–3 December 1984 from the Union Carbide pesticide plant and caused one of the world's worst industrial disasters.

Q44. Dobson unit is used for measurement of:

(A) Thickness of Earth

(B) Thickness of Diamond

(C) Thickness of Ozone layer

(D) Measurement of Noise

Answer: (C)

Exp: A Dobson Unit (DU) measures the total amount of ozone in a vertical atmospheric column. One DU corresponds to a 0.01 mm layer of pure ozone at standard temperature and pressure.

Q45. Money bill can be introduced in the State Legislative Assembly with the prior permission of the:

(A) Governor of the State

(B) Chief Minister of the State

(C) Speaker of Legislative Assembly

(D) Finance Minister of the State

Answer: (A)

Exp: A State Money Bill requires the Governor’s recommendation before introduction. It can be introduced only in the Legislative Assembly, not in a Legislative Council.

Q46. The first Indian Governor General of Independent India was:

(A) Surendra Nath

(B) C. Rajagopalachari

(C) Rajendra Prasad

(D) B.R. Ambedkar

Answer: (C)

Exp: C. Rajagopalachari was the first Indian Governor-General of independent India, serving from 21 June 1948 until 26 January 1950.

Q47. Which of the following is a tsunami warning sign?

(A) Stormy weather

(B) Hailstorm

(C) Water falling back quickly from the beach.

(D) Pets acting strangely

Answer: (C)

Exp: A sudden retreat of sea water from a beach can be a natural tsunami warning sign; people should move immediately to higher ground.

Q48. Vermicomposting is done by:

(A) Fungus

(B) Bacteria

(C) Worms

(D) Animals

Answer: (C)

Exp: Earthworms consume decomposing organic matter and produce nutrient-rich vermicompost, making the process useful in organic waste management.

Q49. Development that meets the needs of the present, without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs is known as:

(A) Sustainable development

(B) Mitigation

(C) Disaster management

(D) Capacity building

Answer: (A)

Exp: The Brundtland Commission popularised the modern definition of sustainable development in its 1987 report Our Common Future.

Q50. In which one among the following categories of protected areas in India are local people not allowed to collect and use the biomass?

(A) Biosphere Reserves

(B) National Parks

(C) Wetlands declared under Ramsar Convention

(D) Wildlife Sanctuaries

Answer: (B)

Exp: In a National Park, protection is stricter than in most other protected-area categories, and private collection or use of biomass is generally prohibited except as specifically permitted by law. National Parks are notified under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

Q51. Which one of the following is associated with the issue of control and phasing out of the use of ozone depleting substances?

(A) Bretton Woods Conference

(B) Montreal Protocol

(C) Kyoto Protocol

(D) Nagoya Protocol

Answer: (B)

Exp: The Montreal Protocol, adopted in 1987, controls and phases out ozone-depleting substances such as CFCs. It is considered one of the major international environmental agreements.

Q52. Consider the following: 1. Star tortoise 2. Monitor lizard 3. Pygmy hog 4. Spider monkey Which of the above are naturally found in India?

(A) 1, 2 and 3 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 1 and 4 only

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (A)

Exp: The Indian star tortoise, monitor lizard and pygmy hog occur naturally in India. The spider monkey is native to the Americas, not India.

Q53. The World Food Programme (WFP) is World’s largest humanitarian organization addressing hunger and promoting food Security. It is headquartered in?

(A) Geneva

(B) Rome

(C) New york

(D) Paris

Answer: (B)

Exp: The World Food Programme (WFP) is headquartered in Rome, Italy. It was established in 1961 and became a permanent UN programme in 1965.

Q54. What is the Capital of Ghana?

(A) Ankara

(B) Accra

(C) Bissau

(D) Banjul

Answer: (B)

Exp: The capital of Ghana is Accra, located on the Gulf of Guinea in West Africa.

Q55. Where is Headquarter of NATO situated?

(A) Paris

(B) Milan

(C) Brussells

(D) London

Answer: (C)

Exp: The headquarters of NATO is in Brussels, Belgium. NATO was founded in 1949 under the North Atlantic Treaty.

Q56. Which animal is in the logo of WWF( World animal fund for nature)

(A) Tiger

(B) Lion

(C) Elephant

(D) Giant panda

Answer: (D)

Exp: The WWF logo features the giant panda. WWF was founded in 1961 and works globally for wildlife and environmental conservation.

Q57. Where is the Headquarter of Zoological Survey of India?

(A) Hyderabad

(B) Kolkata

(C) Mumbai

(D) Chennai

Answer: (B)

Exp: The headquarters of the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) is in Kolkata. ZSI functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

Q58. Jnanpith Award was instituted in 1961. The newspaper group behind the award is?

(A) The Hindu

(B) The Indian Express

(C) Hindustan Times

(D) The Times of India

Answer: (D)

Exp: The Jnanpith Award was instituted in 1961 by the Times of India group through Bharatiya Jnanpith. The first award was presented in 1965 to G. Sankara Kurup.

Q59. “ Sarhool “ festival is mainly associated with the tribal community of which state?

(A) Odisha

(B) Jharkhnd

(C) Madhya pradesh

(D) Maharashtra

Answer: (B)

Exp: Sarhul is an important spring festival associated particularly with tribal communities of Jharkhand, including the Oraon, Munda and Ho.

Q60. Which of the following contains the World’s largest area of Mangrove Forest?

(A) Namdapha National Park

(B) Western Ghat

(C) Rann of kutch

(D) Sundarbans

Answer: (D)

Exp: The Sundarbans contain the world’s largest continuous mangrove forest. It spreads across the delta of the Ganga, Brahmaputra and Meghna in India and Bangladesh.

Q61. Where is the headquarter of International Union for conservation of nature (IUCN) located?

(A) New york

(B) Paris

(C) Geneva

(D) Gland

Answer: (D)

Exp: The headquarters of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) is at Gland, Switzerland. IUCN was founded in 1948.

Q62. World AIDS day is celebrated on?

(A) December 1

(B) December 2

(C) December 8

(D) December 10

Answer: (A)

Exp: World AIDS Day is observed every year on 1 December to raise awareness about HIV/AIDS and remember those affected by the epidemic.

Q63. Where is the headquarter of “International Red Cross” located?

(A) Paris

(B) Geneva

(C) London

(D) The Hague

Answer: (B)

Exp: The International Committee of the Red Cross (ICRC) is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland. The ICRC was founded in 1863.

Q64. Which among the following is an impact of heavy rainfall on soil?

(A) It decreases acidity and decreases fertility

(B) It increases alkalinity and decreases fertility

(C) It decreases alkalinity and decreases fertility

(D) It reduces the fertility

Answer: (D)

Exp: Heavy rainfall can cause leaching and soil erosion, removing soluble nutrients and reducing soil fertility. In strongly leached regions, basic nutrients are also depleted.

Q65. Who coined the term “Ecology”

(A) Ernst Haeckel

(B) G. Evelyn Hutchinson

(C) Hugo de vries

(D) Robert Brown

Answer: (D)

Exp: The term ecology was coined by German biologist Ernst Haeckel in 1866 for the study of relationships between organisms and their environment.

Q66. Which of the following is the main reason for the extinction of wildlife?

(A) Hunting

(B) Poaching

(C) End of habitat

(D) All of these

Answer: (D)

Exp: Wildlife extinction is driven by several pressures, especially habitat loss, hunting and poaching. Thus the combined option captures the major direct causes listed.

Q67. Sustainable dvelopment is related to?

(A) Development without affecting future development

(B) Greater development of Industries

(C) Agricultural development only

(D) All of these

Answer: (A)

Exp: Sustainable development means meeting present needs without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. This definition comes from the Brundtland Report, 1987.

Q68. Which type of forest is the most widespread in India?

(A) Tropical evergreen forest

(B) Tropical deciduos forests

(C) Mangrove forest

(D) All of these

Answer: (C)

Exp: Tropical deciduous forests are the most widespread forest type in India. They shed leaves during the dry season to conserve moisture.

Q69. Which is the first National Park of India?

(A) Bandipur national park

(B)

(C) Kaziranga national park

(D) Jim corbett national park

Answer: (A)

Exp: Jim Corbett National Park, established in 1936 as Hailey National Park, is generally regarded as India’s first national park.

Q70. “Elephant festival related to which National park?

(A) Manas national park

(B) Kaziranga national park

(C) Orang National park

(D) Nameri national park

Answer: (B)

Exp: The Elephant Festival is associated with Kaziranga National Park and highlights Assam’s elephant conservation and cultural heritage.

Q71. “Keibul Lamjao” the only floating national park in the world is located in?

(A) Ladakh

(B) Tripura

(C) Manipur

(D) Mizoram

Answer: (B)

Exp: Keibul Lamjao National Park in Manipur is the world’s only floating national park. It is located on Loktak Lake and protects the endangered Sangai deer.

Q72. Black soil are best suited for the cultivation of?

(A) Cotton

(B) Rice

(C) Sugarcane

(D) Pulses

Answer: (C)

Exp: Black soil is especially suitable for cotton because of its high clay content, moisture-retention capacity and mineral composition.

Q73. “Golai” and “Bogapani” are the two major Elephant corridors of which national park?

(A) Kaziranga national park

(B) Orang National park

(C) Dehing patkai national park

(D)

Answer: (D)

Exp: The Golai and Bogapani elephant corridors are associated with Dehing Patkai landscape, an important elephant habitat of Upper Assam.

Q74. Where was the first Bio-Sphere reserve established in India?

(A) Kanha

(B) Periyar

(C) Nilgiri

(D) Nokrek

Answer: (C)

Exp: Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve was the first biosphere reserve established in India in 1986. It spans parts of Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka.

Q75. “Jim corbett” tiger reserve is in which state?

(A) Himachal pradesh

(B) Gujarat

(C) Uttarakhand

(D) Madhya pradesh

Answer: (C)

Exp: Jim Corbett National Park is in Uttarakhand. Established in 1936, it was originally called Hailey National Park.

Q76. The state which receives maximum rainfall due to North- East Monsoon?

(A) Assam

(B) West Bengal

(C) Tamil Nadu

(D) Kerala

Answer: (C)

Exp: The North-East or retreating monsoon gives Tamil Nadu much of its important winter rainfall, especially during October–December.

Q77. Which of these is not a UNESCO world heritage site?

(A) Ajanta cave, Maharashtra

(B) Red fort, New Delhi

(C) Victoria memorial, Kolkata

(D) Kaziranga national park

Answer: (C)

Exp: The Victoria Memorial in Kolkata is not a UNESCO World Heritage Site, unlike Ajanta Caves, the Red Fort and Kaziranga National Park.

Q78. Which is used as an Air pollution indicator?

(A) Lichens

(B) Algae

(C) Fungi

(D) Bacteria

Answer: (A)

Exp: Lichens are sensitive to atmospheric pollutants, especially sulphur dioxide, and are therefore widely used as biological indicators of air quality.

Q79. The lowest layer of Atmosphere is?

(A) Mesosphere

(B) Stratosphere

(C) Troposphere

(D) Thermosphere

Answer: (C)

Exp: The troposphere is the lowest atmospheric layer and contains most atmospheric water vapour and almost all weather phenomena.

Q80. “Satpura Tiger Reserve” which has been added to the tentative list of UNESCO’s world heritage sites, is located in which Indian state?

(A) Punjab

(B) Madhya pradesh

(C) Gujarat

(D) Rajasthan

Answer: (B)

Exp: Satpura Tiger Reserve is in Madhya Pradesh. It lies in the Satpura landscape and forms part of a major central Indian tiger habitat.

Q81. The “Mahendragiri hill ecosystem” is situated in which state?

(A) Kerala

(B) Jharkhand

(C) Uttarakhand

(D) Odisha

Answer: (D)

Exp: The Mahendragiri hill ecosystem is in Odisha, in the Eastern Ghats, and is recognised for its rich biodiversity.

Q82. Where is the Headquarters of the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)?

(A) Paris

(B) Oslo

(C) Geneva

(D) Copenhagen

Answer: (C)

Exp: The IPCC is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland. It was established by WMO and UNEP in 1988.

Q83. Which national highway passes through the “Kaziranga National Park”?

(A) NH-44

(B) NH-7

(C) NH- 23

(D) NH-37

Answer: (D)

Exp: NH-37 is the highway identified by the source as passing through Kaziranga National Park; highway numbering has been revised over time.

Q84. Which of the following regions of India is associated with “Pine forests”?

(A) Rohindkhand

(B) Bundelkhand

(C) Jharkhand

(D) Uttarakhand

Answer: (D)

Exp: Uttarakhand is the region associated with pine forests in the source; Himalayan areas support extensive coniferous vegetation.

Q85. “Nagarhole National Park” is part of the ___ Biosphere reserve?

(A) Aravalli

(B) Vindhya

(C) Sarpura

(D) Nilgiri

Answer: (D)

Exp: Nilgiri is the biosphere reserve containing Nagarhole National Park; it forms part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.

Q86. “Laokhowa” wildlife sanctuary is located in?

(A) Kamrup

(B) Morigaon

(C) Nagaon

(D) Sonitpur

Answer: (C)

Exp: Nagaon is the Assam district containing Laokhowa Wildlife Sanctuary.

Q87. “Nambor wildlife sanctuary” is located in?

(A) Golaghat

(B) Jorhat

(C) Sivsagar

(D) Dhemaji

Answer: (A)

Exp: Golaghat is the district containing Nambor Wildlife Sanctuary.

Q88. “Gibbon” wildlife sanctuary is located in which district?

(A) Morigaon

(B) Jorhat

(C) Dibrugarh

(D) Sivsagar

Answer: (B)

Exp: The correct answer is Jorhat. This is the key factual association tested by the question and should be remembered with the subject named in the question.

Q89. Which forest is single handedly planted by “Jadav Payeng”?

(A) Molai forest

(B) Bornodi forest

(C) Barail forest

(D) Dihing forest

Answer: (A)

Exp: Molai forest is the forest planted and developed by Jadav Payeng on Majuli’s sandbar, popularly known as Molai Forest.

Q90. In India, The temperature forest research centre is in which city?

(A) Dehradun

(B) Ranchi

(C) Shimla

(D) Srinagar

Answer: (C)

Exp: Shimla is the city associated with the Forest Research Institute and related forestry research institutions.

Q91. Name the continent where “Tundra” type of climate is not found in?

(A) Europe

(B) Asia

(C) Africa

(D) North America

Answer: (C)

Exp: The correct answer is Africa. This is the key factual association tested by the question and should be remembered with the subject named in the question.

Q92. Which is the only active volcano in India?

(A) Volcano Popa

(B) Volcano of Barren Island

(C) Volcano Etna

(D) None of these

Answer: (B)

Exp: The correct answer is Volcano of Barren Island. This is the key factual association tested by the question and should be remembered with the subject named in the question.

Q93. India’s first “Marine national park” is located in?

(A) Bay of Bengal

(B) The Gulf of kutch

(C) Arabian Sea

(D) The gulf of Khambat

Answer: (B)

Exp: The Gulf of kutch is the location of India’s first Marine National Park, established in the Gulf of Kutch.

Q94. The acid rain destroyes vegetations because it contains

(A) Nitric acid

(B) Ozone

(C) Carbon monoxide

(D) Sulphuric acid

Answer: (D)

Exp: Sulphuric acid contributes to acid rain; sulphuric acid is formed mainly from atmospheric sulphur dioxide and can damage vegetation and soils.

Q95. Which of the following Indian states has the highest forest cover?

(A) Chhatishgarh

(B) Arunachal Pradesh

(C) Maharashtra

(D) Madhya Pradesh

Answer: (D)

Exp: Madhya Pradesh is the state identified by the source as having India’s highest forest cover by area.

Q96. Which of the following regions of India is associated with pine forests?

(A) Rohikhand

(B) Bundelkhand

(C) Jharkhand

(D) Uttarakhand

Answer: (D)

Exp: Uttarakhand is the region associated with pine forests in the source; Himalayan areas support extensive coniferous vegetation.

Q97. “World water day” is observed on?

(A) 22 december

(B) 15 october

(C) 22 march

(D) 10 february

Answer: (C)

Exp: World Water Day is observed on 22 March every year; the United Nations designated the day in 1993.

Q98. “Montreal protocol” is related to which of the following?

(A) Ozone depletion

(B) Bio genetic substances

(C) Reduction in water resources

(D) None of these

Answer: (A)

Exp: The Montreal Protocol addresses substances that deplete the ozone layer; it was adopted on 16 September 1987 and entered into force in 1989.

Q99. “Ramsar Convention” took place in the year?

(A) 1969

(B) 1970

(C) 1971

(D) 1972

Answer: (C)

Exp: The Ramsar Convention was adopted in 1971 at Ramsar, Iran, to promote the conservation and wise use of wetlands.

Q100. “The Bura chapori” wildlife sanctuary is located in__?

(A) Sonitpur

(B) Golaghat

(C) Darrang

(D) Morigaon

Answer: (A)

Exp: Burachapori Wildlife Sanctuary is in Sonitpur district and forms part of the Brahmaputra floodplain ecosystem.

Q101. “Nanda Devi” Biosphere reserve” is located in which state?

(A) West Bengal

(B) Tamil Nadu

(C) Himachal Pradesh

(D) Uttarakhand

Answer: (D)

Exp: The Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve is in Uttarakhand; Nanda Devi National Park and Valley of Flowers are part of the UNESCO World Heritage property inscribed in 1988.

Q102. What was the main aim for “Ramsar convention”?

(A) Bio-diversity conservation

(B) Conservation of wetlands

(C) Global warming

(D) Climate change

Answer: (A)

Exp: The Ramsar Convention focuses on the conservation and wise use of wetlands of international importance.

Environment

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